ColdFusion ORM how to update without dropping? - orm

I have a persistent entity in ColdFusion and I need to update a property
property name="createdDateTime" ormtype="date";
to
property name="createdDateTime" ormtype="timestamp";
before, I use to delete the table then reload ORM. However,now I have data in my table I cannot just delete it. Is there anyway I can update this field in ORM without dropping the whole table?
Thanks

Yes, you should be able to just change the property and do ormReload(). Try it in a test environment first but the ormtype is not directly tied to the database type.

in your Application.cfc
this.ormSettings.dbCreate = "Update";
Anyway, in your case (date -> timestamp), the underlying SQL type should be the same (at least in SQL Server, which is datetime)

Related

Binding error in MSSQL Views 'DWView.dbo.whatever'

I was given a database by a client. I can't access any of the data in the Views in this database because I get this error:
Invalid object name 'DWView.dbo.Person_C'.
I have no user/role/anything called DWView. The view exists, but nothing can access it. This happens in all of the views.
One thing I'm not clear on -- what is DWView.dbo? I know dbo is the schema/owner, but what about the DWView part? I've never encountered this in 15+ years of working with MSSQL databases.
Any attempt to access the views fails with that error, including sp_refreshview.
Is there anything I can do to remove this DWView thing? Thanks.
The error means the object doesn't exist. Like you mentioned, the schema comes before the view in syntax; so when you ask ...
One thing I'm not clear on -- what is DWView.dbo
... it means database.schema. So your query is looking for the database DWView, the schema dbo, and the object name Person_C.
As a note, if you're already on the database (USE Database GO), you don't have to use the database in your query; you can simply use SchemaName.ObjectName.
Try executing this ..
USE Your_Database_Name
GO
SELECT * FROM dbo.Person_C
GO
It should be [database].[schema].[objectname].

Renaming table column and having it propagate to dependent views

If we want to change the name of MyColumnName to MyAlteredColumnName...
...and we have a SQL Server 2008 table that looks like:
MyTable
MyColumnName
and a view that references the underlying column:
CREATE VIEW MyDependentView WITH SCHEMABINDING
AS
SELECT ..., MyTable.MyColumnName
We end up following this procedure:
Dropping the View
Altering MyTable.MyColumnName to MyTable.MyAlteredColumnName
Recreating the View with a reference to MyAlteredColumnName
We do this with migrator dot net.
Is there a better way to do this? Is there T-SQL that will alter a view column name? Or any support in SQL Server 2008 for automagically tying the columns together?
Without the use of a third-party tool, this is one of the only ways to do it. You can obviously also use ALTER VIEW instead of a DROP and CREATE.
It should be noted that Red-Gate makes a tool called SQL Refactor which will automate this sort of change (no I do not work for them). I'm sure there are other similar database refactoring tools out there.
Use sp_refreshview:
EXEC sp_refreshview #viewName
If you want to refresh all your views, you'll have to iterate over a loop of them, which means dynamic SQL.
And if you layered them (a view is dependent on another view - bad), you'll have to refresh the parent first...
If it's a SELECT * view, you can call sp_refreshview, as OMG_Ponies suggested. It will recompile the view and update the column metadata appropriately. This is one area where judicious use of SELECT * could have benefits, if used appropriately within a coherent scheme.
Otherwise, you must redefine the view. Any explicit references to the old column name will now raise an error.
Ah, one more alternative:
EXEC sp_rename 'MyTable.MyColumnName', 'MyAlteredColumnName'
ALTER TABLE MyTable ADD MyColumnName AS MyAlteredColumnName
EXEC sp_rename 'MyView.MyColumnName', 'MyAlteredColumnName'
It's a hack, and it's dangerous, since the stored view definition will now be out of sync with the view metadata. And you have littered the db with superfluous computed columns.
But it will work (until you forget what you did, or someone else has to maintain the system, and things start to break mysteriously).
I use a third party tool for this, it hasn't failed me yet. It's ApexSQL Refactor, here's the how-to tutorial
How to rename a column without breaking your SQL database

Concurrency handling of Sql transactrion

Suppose, I am about to start a project using ASP.NET and SQL Server 2005. I have to design the concurrency requirement for this application. I am planning to add a TimeStamp column in each table. While updating the tables I will check that the TimeStamp column is same, as it was selected.
Will this approach be suffice? Or is there any shortcomings for this approach under any circumstances?
Please advice.
Thanks
Lijo
First of all the way which you describe in your question is in my opinion the best way for ASP.NET application with MS SQL as a database. There is no locking in the database. It is perfect with permanently disconnected clients like web clients.
How one can read from some answers, there is a misunderstanding in the terminology. We all mean using Microsoft SQL Server 2008 or higher to hold the database. If you open in the MS SQL Server 2008 documentation the topic "rowversion (Transact-SQL)" you will find following:
"timestamp is the synonym for the
rowversion data type and is subject to
the behavior of data type synonym." …
"The timestamp syntax is deprecated.
This feature will be removed in a
future version of Microsoft SQL
Server. Avoid using this feature in
new development work, and plan to
modify applications that currently use
this feature."
So timestamp data type is the synonym for the rowversion data type for MS SQL. It holds 64-bit the counter which exists internally in every database and can be seen as ##DBTS. After a modification of one row in one table of the database, the counter will be incremented.
As I read your question I read "TimeStamp" as a column name of the type rowversion data. I personally prefer the name RowUpdateTimeStamp. In AzManDB (see Microsoft Authorization Manager with the Store as DB) I could see such name. Sometimes were used also ChildUpdateTimeStamp to trace hierarchical RowUpdateTimeStamp structures (with respect of triggers).
I implemented this approach in my last project and be very happy. Generally you do following:
Add RowUpdateTimeStamp column to every table of you database with the type rowversion (it will be seen in the Microsoft SQL Management Studio as timestamp, which is the same).
You should construct all you SQL SELECT Queries for sending results to the client so, that you send additional RowVersion value together with the main data. If you have a SELECT with JOINTs, you should send RowVersion of the maximum RowUpdateTimeStamp value from both tables like
SELECT s.Id AS Id
,s.Name AS SoftwareName
,m.Name AS ManufacturerName
,CASE WHEN s.RowUpdateTimeStamp > m.RowUpdateTimeStamp
THEN s.RowUpdateTimeStamp
ELSE m.RowUpdateTimeStamp
END AS RowUpdateTimeStamp
FROM dbo.Software AS s
INNER JOIN dbo.Manufacturer AS m ON s.Manufacturer_Id=m.Id
Or make a data casting like following
SELECT s.Id AS Id
,s.Name AS SoftwareName
,m.Name AS ManufacturerName
,CASE WHEN s.RowUpdateTimeStamp > m.RowUpdateTimeStamp
THEN CAST(s.RowUpdateTimeStamp AS bigint)
ELSE CAST(m.RowUpdateTimeStamp AS bigint)
END AS RowUpdateTimeStamp
FROM dbo.Software AS s
INNER JOIN dbo.Manufacturer AS m ON s.Manufacturer_Id=m.Id
to hold RowUpdateTimeStamp as bigint, which corresponds ulong data type of C#. If you makes OUTER JOINTs or JOINTs from many tables, the construct MAX(RowUpdateTimeStamp) from all tables will be seen a little more complex. Because MS SQL don't support function like MAX(a,b,c,d,e) the corresponding construct could looks like following:
(SELECT MAX(rv)
FROM (SELECT table1.RowUpdateTimeStamp AS rv
UNION ALL SELECT table2.RowUpdateTimeStamp
UNION ALL SELECT table3.RowUpdateTimeStamp
UNION ALL SELECT table4.RowUpdateTimeStamp
UNION ALL SELECT table5.RowUpdateTimeStamp) AS maxrv) AS RowUpdateTimeStamp
All disconnected clients (web clients) receive and hold not only some rows of data, but RowVersion (type ulong) of the data row.
In one try to modify data from the disconnected client, you client should send the RowVersion corresponds to the original data to server. The spSoftwareUpdate stored procedure could look like
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.spSoftwareUpdate
#Id int,
#SoftwareName varchar(100),
#originalRowUpdateTimeStamp bigint, -- used for optimistic concurrency mechanism
#NewRowUpdateTimeStamp bigint OUTPUT
AS
BEGIN
-- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from
-- interfering with SELECT statements.
-- ExecuteNonQuery() returns -1, but it is not an error
-- one should test #NewRowUpdateTimeStamp for DBNull
SET NOCOUNT ON;
UPDATE dbo.Software
SET Name = #SoftwareName
WHERE Id = #Id AND RowUpdateTimeStamp <= #originalRowUpdateTimeStamp
SET #NewRowUpdateTimeStamp = (SELECT RowUpdateTimeStamp
FROM dbo.Software
WHERE (##ROWCOUNT > 0) AND (Id = #Id));
END
Code of dbo.spSoftwareDelete stored procedure look like the same. If you don’t switch on NOCOUNT, you can produce DBConcurrencyException automatically generated in a lot on scenarios. Visual Studio gives you possibilities to use optimistic concurrency like "Use optimistic concurrency" checkbox in Advanced Options of the TableAdapter or DataAdapter.
If you look at dbo.spSoftwareUpdate stored procedure carful you will find, that I use RowUpdateTimeStamp <= #originalRowUpdateTimeStamp in WHERE instead of RowUpdateTimeStamp = #originalRowUpdateTimeStamp. I do so because, the value of #originalRowUpdateTimeStamp which has the client typically are constructed as a MAX(RowUpdateTimeStamp) from more as one tables. So it can be that RowUpdateTimeStamp < #originalRowUpdateTimeStamp. Either you should use strict equality = and reproduce here the same complex JOIN statement as you used in SELECT statement or use <= construct like me and stay exact the same safe as before.
By the way, one can construct very good value for ETag based on RowUpdateTimeStamp which can sent in HTTP header to the client together with data. With the ETag you can implement intelligent data caching on the client side.
I can’t write whole code here, but you can find a lot of examples in Internet. I want only repeat one more time that in my opinion usage optimistic concurrency based on rowversion is the best way for the most of ASP.NET scenarios.
In SQL Server a recommended approach for type of situation is to create a column of type 'rowversion' and use that to check if any of the fields in that row have changed.
SQL Server guarantees that if any value in the row changes (or a new row is inserted) it's rowversion column will automatically updated to different value. Letting the database handle this for you is much more reliable than trying to do it yourself.
In your update statements you simply need to add a where clause to check that the rowversion value is the same as it was when you first retrieved the row. If not, someone else has changed the row (ie: it's dirty)
Also, from that page:
The timestamp syntax is deprecated.
This feature will be removed in a
future version of Microsoft SQL
Server. Avoid using this feature in
new development work, and plan to
modify applications that currently use
this feature.
I'm not sure that concurrency should be handled in the database like this. The database itself should be able manage isolation and transactional behavior, but the threading behavior ought to be done in code.
rowversion suggestion is correct I would say but its disappointing to see that timestamp will be deprecated soon. Some of my OLD applications are using this for different reasons then checking concurrency.

Force SQL Server column to a specific value

Is it possible to force a column in a SQL Server 2005 table to a certain value regardless of the value used in an insert or update statement is? Basically, there is a bug in an application that I don't have access to that is trying to insert a date of 1/1/0001 into a datetime column. This is producing a SqlDateTime overflow exception. Since this column isn't even used for anything, I'd like to somehow update the constraints on the columns or something in the database to avoid the error. This is obviously just a temporary emergency patch to avoid the problem... Ideas welcome...
How is the value being inserted? If it's through a stored proc... you could just modify the Sproc to ignore that input parameter.
if it's through client-side generated SQL, or an ORM tool, otoh, then afaik, the only option is a "Before" Trigger that "replaces" the value with an acceptable one...
If you're using SQL 2005 you can create an INSTEAD OF trigger.
The code in this trigger wil run in stead of the original insert/update
-Edoode
I'd create a trigger to check and change the value
If it is a third party application then I will assume you don't have access to the Stored Procedure, or logic used to generate and insert that value (it is still worth checking the SPs for the application's database though, to see if you can modify them).
As Charles suggested, if you don't have access to the source, then you need to have a trigger on the insert.
The Microsoft article here will give you some in depth information on creating triggers.
However, SQL Server doesn't have a true 'before insert' trigger (to my knowledge), so you need to try INSTEAD OF. Have a look here for more information. In that article, pay particular note of section 37.7, and the following example (again from that article):
CREATE TRIGGER T_InsertInventory ON CurrentInventory
INSTEAD OF INSERT AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO Inventory (PartNumber, Description, QtyOnOrder, QtyInStock)
SELECT PartNumber, Description, QtyOnOrder, QtyInStock
FROM inserted
END
Nick.
the simplest hack would be to make it a varchar, and let it insert that as a string into the column.
The more complicated answer is, you can massage the data with a trigger, but it would still have to be valid in the first place. For instance I can reset a fields value in an update/insert trigger, but it would still have to get through the insert first.

What is the best way to maintain a LastUpdatedDate column in SQL?

Suppose I have a database table that has a timedate column of the last time it was updated or inserted. Which would be preferable:
Have a trigger update the field.
Have the program that's doing the insertion/update set the field.
The first option seems to be the easiest since I don't even have to recompile to do it, but that's not really a huge deal. Other than that, I'm having trouble thinking of any reasons to do one over the other. Any suggestions?
The first option can be more robust because the database will be maintaining the field. This comes with the possible overhead of using triggers.
If you could have other apps writing to this table in the future, via their own interfaces, I'd go with a trigger so you're not repeating that logic anywhere else.
If your app is pretty much it, or any other apps would access the database through the same datalayer, then I'd avoid that nightmare that triggers can induce and put the logic directly in your datalayer (SQL, ORM, stored procs, etc.).
Of course you'd have to make sure your time-source (your app, your users' pcs, your SQL server) is accurate in either case.
Regarding why I don't like triggers:
Perhaps I was rash by calling them a nightmare. Like everything else, they are appropriate in moderation. If you use them for very simple things like this, I could get on board.
It's when the trigger code gets complex (and expensive) that triggers start to cause lots of problems. They are a hidden tax on every insert/update/delete query you execute (depending on the type of trigger). If that tax is acceptable then they can be the right tool for the job.
You didn't mention 3. Use a stored procedure to update the table. The procedure can set timestamps as desired.
Perhaps that's not feasible for you, but I didn't see it mentioned.
As long as I'm using a DBMS in whose triggers I trust, I'd always go with the trigger option. It allows the DBMS to take care of as many things as possible, which is usually a good thing.
It work make sure under any circumstances that the timestamp column has the correct value. The overhead would be negligible.
The only thing that would be against triggers is portability. If that's not an issue, I don't think there is a question which direction to go.
I would say trigger just in case that someone uses something besides your app to update the table, you probably also want to have a LastUpdatedBy and use SUSER_SNAME() for that, this way you can see who did the update
I'm a proponent of stored procedures for everything. Your update proc could contain a GETDATE() for the column.
And I don't like triggers for this kind of update. Lack of visibility of triggers tends to cause confusion.
This sounds like business logic to me ... I would be more disposed to putting this in the code. Let the database manage the storage of data ... No more and no less.
Triggers are a blessing and a curse.
Blessing: You can use them to enable all kinds of custom constraint checking and data management without backend systems knowledge or changes.
Curse: You don't know whats happening behind your back. Concurrency issues/deadlocks by additional objects brought into transactions that were not origionally expected. Phantom behavior including session environment changes, unreliable rowcounts. Excessive triggering of conditions..additional hotspot/performance penalties.
The answer to this question (Update dates implicitly(trigger) or explicitly (code)) ususally weights heavily on context. For example if you are using last change date as an informational field you might want to only change it when a 'user' actually makes salient changes to a row vs an automated process that simply updates some sort of internal marker users don't care about.
If you are using the trigger for change synchronization or you have no control over code that is executing a trigger makes a lot more sense.
My advise on trigger use it to be careful. Most systems allow you to filter execution based on the operation and fields changed. Proper use of 'before' vs 'after' triggers can have a significant performance impacts.
Finally a few systems are capable of executing a single trigger on multiple changes (multiple rows effected within a transaction) your code should be prepared to apply itself as a bulk update to multiple rows.
Normally I'd say do it database side, but it depends on your application. If you're using LINQ-to-SQL you can just set the field as Timestamp and have your DAL use the Timestamp field for concurrency. It handles it for you automatically, so having to repeat code is a non event.
If you're writing your DAL yourself though, then I'd be more likely to handle this on the database side as it makes writing user interfaces far more flexible - although, I'd likely do this in a stored procedure that has "public" access and the tables locked down - you don't want just any clown coming along and bypassing your stored procedure by writing to the tables directly... unless you plan on making your DAL a standalone component that any future application must use to access the database, in which case, you could code it directly into the DAL - of course, you should only do this if you can guarantee that everyone accessing the database is doing so through your DAL component.
If you're going to allow "public" access to the database to insert into tables, then you'll have to go with the trigger because otherwise anyone can insert/update a single field in the table and the updated field could never get updated.
I would have the date maintained at the database, i.e., a trigger, stored procedure, etc. In most of your database-driven applications the user app is not going to be the only means by which the business users get at data. There are reporting tools, extracts, user SQL, etc. There's also updates and corrections that are done by the DBA that the application won't be providing the date for as well.
But honestly the #1 reason I wouldn't do it from the application is you have no control over the date/time on the client machine. They might be rolling it back to get more days out of a trial license on something or may just want to do bad things to your program.
You can do this without the trigger if your database supports default values on the fields. For example, in SQL Server 2005 I have a table with a field created like this:
create table dbo.Repository
(
...
last_updated datetime default getdate(),
...
)
then the insert code just leaves that field out of the insert field list.
I forgot that only worked for the first insert - I do have an update trigger as well, to update the date fields and put a copy of the updated record in my history table - which I would post ... but the editor keeps erroring out on my code ...
Finally:
create trigger dbo.Repository_Upd on dbo.Repository instead of update
as
--**************************************************************************
-- Trigger: Repository_Upd
-- Author: Ron Savage
-- Date: 09/28/2008
--
-- Description:
-- This trigger sets the last_updated and updated_by fields before the update
-- and puts a copy of the updated row into the Repository_History table.
--
-- Modification History:
-- Date Init Comment
-- 10/22/2008 RS Blocked .prm files from updating the history as they
-- get updated every time the cfg file is run.
-- 10/21/2008 RS Updated the insert into the history table to use the
-- d.last_updated field from the Repository table rather
-- than getdate() to avoid micro second differences.
-- 09/28/2008 RS Created.
--**************************************************************************
begin
--***********************************************************************
-- Update the record but fill in the updated_by, updated_system and
-- last_updated date with current information.
--***********************************************************************
update cr set
cr.filename = i.filename,
cr.created_by = i.created_by,
cr.created_system = i.created_system,
cr.create_date = i.create_date,
cr.updated_by = user,
cr.updated_system = host_name(),
cr.last_updated = getdate(),
cr.content = i.content
from
Repository cr
JOIN Inserted i
on (i.config_id = cr.config_id);
--***********************************************************************
-- Put a copy in the history table
--***********************************************************************
declare #extention varchar(3);
select #extention = lower(right(filename,3)) from Inserted;
if (#extention <> 'prm')
begin
Insert into Repository_History
select
i.config_id,
i.filename,
i.created_by,
i.created_system,
i.create_date,
user as updated_by,
host_name() as updated_system,
d.last_updated,
d.content
from
Inserted i
JOIN Repository d
on (d.config_id = i.config_id);
end
end
Ron