I'm fairly new to SQL and all I need to populate a table automatically where the values from column2 are always present for each value in column 1. For example, for every new item inserted on Column1(Names) I want a pre-defined set of values to populate Column2(Illnesses) I have no idea what to call this process and all my google searches returned nothing.
As an example:
When John is added to the Database it creates a row, I want to automatically duplicate John and fill column2 it with the following pre-defined options
I hope I'm explaining myself ok...probably I'm not so apologies.
You can use CROSS APPLY. Something like this:
SELECT [name], Illness
FROM
(
VALUES ('John')
) Names ([name])
CROSS APPLY
(
VALUES ('Flu')
,('Covid')
,('Common Cold')
,('Constipations')
,('Food Posoning')
) Illnesses(Illness)
You are showing a many-to-many data relationship which requires 3 tables. There should be a table of People and a table of Illnesses where in both each record is unique. Then a junction table PeopleIllnesses which should save PeopleID and IllnessID as foreign keys of the ID's from People and Illnesses.
You want to 'batch create' a set of records. Possibly need code in whatever app you are using to program interface (Access, vb.net, C#, etc). The new People record must first be committed to table. In VBA, code could be in click event of a button on data entry form for People and like:
Sub btnAddRecords_Click()
DoCmd.RunCommand acCmdSaveRecord
CurrentDb.Execute "INSERT INTO PeopleIllnesses(PeopleID, IllnessID) SELECT " & Me.tbxPID & ", IllnessID FROM Illnesses"
End Sub
Related
I have a vb.net application where datagridview is databound to sql table at design time(with table adapter and dataset). All I wanted is to get newly added row's Primary key(int) when i add new row to it. I have searched, but it's showing sql commands like below:
INSERT INTO #Customers
(Name)
VALUES ('Customer 1')
SELECT SCOPE_IDENTITY()
so using scope_identity(). But is there any way I can do it with adapter(or dataset) in vb.net or same command can be given though adapter or similar ?
Thanks in advance!
try this!
SCOPE_IDENTITY() will give you the last identity value inserted into any table directly within the current scope (scope = batch, stored procedure, etc. but not within, say, a trigger that was fired by the current scope)
Use the OUTPUT clause if you are inserting multiple rows and need to retrieve the set of IDs that were generated.
INSERT #a(x) OUTPUT inserted.identity_column VALUES('b'),('c');
--
result will be
1
2
I have never really worked with Triggers before in MSSQL but I think it'll be what I need for this task.
The structure of the table is as such:
ID|****|****|****|****|****|****|****|TOUROPERATOR
The Tour Operator Code is the code that tells us what company owned the flight we carried out for them. Two of those codes (there are 24 in total) are outdated. Our users requested that those two be changed but the tour operator code is pulled from a database we don't control. The FlightData table however, we do control. So I was thinking a trigger could change the tour operator code if it was one of the two outdated ones, to the correct ones instead respectively when they were inserted.
So I went into good ol' SQL Management Studio and asked to make a trigger. It gave me some sample code and here is my Pseudo Code below:
SET ANSI_NULLS ON
GO
SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
GO
CREATE TRIGGER ChangeProvider
ON FlightData
AFTER INSERT
AS
BEGIN
IF(TheInsertedValue == Criteria)
UPDATE FlightData
SET TheInsertedValue = NewValue
ENDIF
END
GO
I am not that good with this type of Database Programming so excuse my mistakes.
How would I go about doing this?
You could add a computed column to your table instead of adding a trigger.
Then the new column could just use a case statement to either show
the original TourOperator column value or the new value you wanted.
You'd add a new column to your table like this
TourOperatorCorrect = CASE WHEN TourOperator = 'Whatever value' THEN 'ChangedValue'
--I just want to use what I have already in the TourOperator column
ELSE TourOperator
END AS VARCHAR(50)
Basics of computed columns are here - https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-ie/library/ms188300.aspx
Your misconception here is that the trigger runs once per inserted value - it is in fact run once per insert statement, so you can and will find more than one row inserted at once.
You'll find that your inserted values are in the pseudo table inserted, which has the same structure as your FlightData table in this case. You write a select statement against that, specifying any criteria you wish.
However, it's not immediately clear what your logic is - does the FlightData table you are updating in your trigger only have one row? Do you update every row in the table with the newest inserted value? It is hard to understand what you are trying to now, and what the purpose of the table and this trigger are - let alone what you would want to do if you inserted more than one row at once.
When inserted table contains mutiple rows,your code will fail,so change code to work with inserted table as whole
UPDATE F
SET f.TheInsertedValue = i.value
from inserted i
join
Flighttable F
on f.matchingcolumn=i.matchingcolumn
and i.somevalue='criteria'
I want to add another row in my existing table and I'm a bit hesitant if I'm doing the right thing because it might skew the database. I have my script below and would like to hear your thoughts about it.
I want to add another row for 'Jane' in the table, which will be 'SKATING" in the ACT column.
Table: [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
My script is:
INSERT INTO [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
([ENTITY],[TYPE],[EMP_COD],[DATE],[LINE_NO],[ACT],[NAME])
VALUES
('REG','EMP','45233','2016-06-20 00:00:00:00','2','SKATING','JANE')
Will this do the trick?
Your statement looks ok. If the database has a problem with it (for example, due to a foreign key constraint violation), it will reject the statement.
If any of the fields in your table are numeric (and not varchar or char), just remove the quotes around the corresponding field. For example, if emp_cod and line_no are int, insert the following values instead:
('REG','EMP',45233,'2016-06-20 00:00:00:00',2,'SKATING','JANE')
Inserting records into a database has always been the most common reason why I've lost a lot of my hairs on my head!
SQL is great when it comes to SELECT or even UPDATEs but when it comes to INSERTs it's like someone from another planet came into the SQL standards commitee and managed to get their way of doing it implemented into the final SQL standard!
If your table does not have an automatic primary key that automatically gets generated on every insert, then you have to code it yourself to manage avoiding duplicates.
Start by writing a normal SELECT to see if the record(s) you're going to add don't already exist. But as Robert implied, your table may not have a primary key because it looks like a LOG table to me. So insert away!
If it does require to have a unique record everytime, then I strongly suggest you create a primary key for the table, either an auto generated one or a combination of your existing columns.
Assuming the first five combined columns make a unique key, this select will determine if your data you're inserting does not already exist...
SELECT COUNT(*) AS FoundRec FROM [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
WHERE [ENTITY] = wsEntity AND [TYPE] = wsType AND [EMP_COD] = wsEmpCod AND [DATE] = wsDate AND [LINE_NO] = wsLineno
The wsXXX declarations, you will have to replace them with direct values or have them DECLAREd earlier in your script.
If you ran this alone and recieved a value of 1 or more, then the data exists already in your table, at least those 5 first columns. A true duplicate test will require you to test EVERY column in your table, but it should give you an idea.
In the INSERT, to do it all as one statement, you can do this ...
INSERT INTO [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
([ENTITY],[TYPE],[EMP_COD],[DATE],[LINE_NO],[ACT],[NAME])
VALUES
('REG','EMP','45233','2016-06-20 00:00:00:00','2','SKATING','JANE')
WHERE (SELECT COUNT(*) AS FoundRec FROM [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
WHERE [ENTITY] = wsEntity AND [TYPE] = wsType AND
[EMP_COD] = wsEmpCod AND [DATE] = wsDate AND
[LINE_NO] = wsLineno) = 0
Just replace the wsXXX variables with the values you want to insert.
I hope that made sense.
So I have a table which has a bunch of information and a bunch of records. But there will be one field in particular I care about, in this case #BegAttField# where only a subset of records have it populated. Many of them have the same value as one another as well.
What I need to do is get a count (minus 1) of all duplicates, then populate the first record in the bunch with that count value in a new field. I have another field I call BegProd that will match #BegAttField# for each "first" record.
I'm just stuck as to how to make this happen. I may have been on the right path, but who knows. The SELECT statement gets me two fields and as many records as their are unique #BegAttField#'s. But once I have them, I haven't been able to work with them.
Here's my whole set of code, trying to use a temporary table and SELECT INTO to try and populate it. (Note: the fields with # around the names are variables for this 3rd party app)
CREATE TABLE #temp (AttCount int, BegProd varchar(255))
SELECT COUNT(d.[#BegAttField#])-1 AS AttCount, d.[#BegAttField#] AS BegProd
INTO [#temp] FROM [Document] d
WHERE d.[#BegAttField#] IS NOT NULL GROUP BY [#BegAttField#]
UPDATE [Document] d SET d.[#NumAttach#] =
SELECT t.[AttCount] FROM [#temp] t INNER JOIN [Document] d1
WHERE t.[BegProd] = d1.[#BegAttField#]
DROP TABLE #temp
Unfortunately I'm running this script through a 3rd party database application that uses SQL as its back-end. So the errors I get are simply: "There is already an object named '#temp' in the database. Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'WHERE'. "
Comment out the CREATE TABLE statement. The SELECT INTO creates that #temp table.
I want to duplicate a row, not the keys of course, without explicity using the field names.
Is there a SQL way or do I have to enumerate the field names through code?
I don't want to explicity use field names because I want to minimize code and db dependencies.
I am going to use it in the Ms Access 2003. I mention it in case that no standard way exists.
INSERT INTO `<table>` (column1, column2, ...) -- Not IDENTITY columns
SELECT column1, column2, ... FROM ...
This will also allow you to insert replacement values for the primary key columns, etc. I've used this, along with a common table expression, to take a set of test data from the month of February, and to pretend they're really from June.
I know you said you want to do it without the field names, but I don't think you can. It's also not a good idea, as it would tie you to the order of the columns.
If you don't have any uniques to worry about:
INSERT INTO <table> (SELECT * FROM <table> WHERE <condition>)
Otherwise, John Saunders' answer is probably your best bet.
If your primary key fields have automatic identifiers then you might well be able to script to interogate the system for fields which are not in the PK, and use the existing values for those that are not and only insert those ones (or to insert null for the PK fields).
Consequently I don't think there is going to be a "standard" way.
I'm not an Access person, but in SQL Server you can choose "Script table as --> Insert into" in SQL Server Management Studio. You can easily modify this to filter the rows you want into an INSERT INTO SELECT statement.
Perhaps something like this exists in Access?
Like folks have stated before me, you can do "INSERT INTO TBL SELECT * FROM TBL WHERE X=Y" and you will get one row. And this will fail if you have a primary key.
If you do not have a PK then you probably have bigger problems.
Is this a linked table? If so, there are no database dependencies, because you are dealing with an ODBC link. In that case, you can easily use this to get a list of columns for the table:
SELECT TOP 0 * FROM TBL (on linked tbl will need a round trip to server)
You get a blank recordset, and you just iterate through the columns.
Ms Access 2003 oriented solution
I have a form where the user can press a button to create a new version of the current record.
That part in Ms Access is easy:
DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNewRec
Now I need to update all the fields on the form (controls are bind with table fields) except the key, ie "id" field, with data from some other record.
I came up with the below routine, which worked good for me:
Private Sub UpdateRow(tblname As String, key_name As String, key_value As String)
Dim Rst As Recordset
Dim field As field
Set DB = CurrentDb
Set Rst = DB.OpenRecordset("select * from " & tblname & " where " & _
key_name & "=" & key_value, dbOpenDynaset)
For Each field In Rst.Fields
If field.Name <> key_name Then
Form(field.Name) = field
End If
Next field
Rst.Close
Set Rst = Nothing
Set DB = Nothing
End Sub
And I use it like this:
DoCmd.GoToRecord , , acNewRec
UpdateRow "TableName", "KeyName", "some_previous_key_value"
Form.Refresh
You would need to explicitly supply the field names for the keys when you supply replacement values, therefore a 'standard' way is simply not possible.
...unless all you tables have a single key, all with the same name (ID is popular), and each key consists of a single column that has the IDENTITY (autonumber) property, in which case you would in fact have no keys at all, merely a way of using the IDENTITY value to uniquely identify your duplicate rows!