update average/count from another table - sql

I've been provided the below schema for this problem and I'm trying to do two things:
Update the ACCOUNT table's average_eval row with the average of the evaluation row from the POST_EVAL table per account_id.
Update the ACCOUNT table with a count of the number of posts per account_id, with default value 0 if the account_id has no post_id associated to it.
Here's the kicker : I MUST use the UPDATE statement and I'm not allowed to use triggers for these specific problems.
I've tried WITH clauses and GROUP BY but haven't gotten anywhere. Using postresql's pgadmin for reference.
Any help setting up these queries?

The first question can be done using something like this:
update account a
set average_eval = t.avg_eval
from (
select account_id, avg(evaluation) as avg_eval
from post_eval
group by account_id
) t
where t.account_id = a.account_id
The second question needs a co-related sub-query as there is no way to express an outer join in an UPDATE statement like the above:
update account a
set num_posts = (select count(*)
from post p
where p.account_id = a.account_id);
The count() will return zero (0) if there are no posts for that account. If a join was used (as in the first statement), the rows would not be updated at all, as the "join" condition wouldn't match.
I have not tested either of those statements, so they can contain typos (or even logical errors).
Unrelated, but: I understand that this is some kind of assignment, so you have no choice. But as RiggsFolly has mentioned: in general you should avoid storing information in a relational database that can be derived from existing data. Both values can easily be calculated in a view and then will always be up-to-date.

Related

Abap subquery Where Cond [duplicate]

I have a requirement to pull records, that do not have history in an archive table. 2 Fields of 1 record need to be checked for in the archive.
In technical sense my requirement is a left join where right side is 'null' (a.k.a. an excluding join), which in abap openSQL is commonly implemented like this (for my scenario anyways):
Select * from xxxx //xxxx is a result for a multiple table join
where xxxx~key not in (select key from archive_table where [conditions] )
and xxxx~foreign_key not in (select key from archive_table where [conditions] )
Those 2 fields are also checked against 2 more tables, so that would mean a total of 6 subqueries.
Database engines that I have worked with previously usually had some methods to deal with such problems (such as excluding join or outer apply).
For this particular case I will be trying to use ABAP logic with 'for all entries', but I would still like to know if it is possible to use results of a sub-query to check more than than 1 field or use another form of excluding join logic on multiple fields using SQL (without involving application server).
I have tested quite a few variations of sub-queries in the life-cycle of the program I was making. NOT EXISTS with multiple field check (shortened example below) to exclude based on 2 keys works in certain cases.
Performance acceptable (processing time is about 5 seconds), although, it's noticeably slower than the same query when excluding based on 1 field.
Select * from xxxx //xxxx is a result for a multiple table inner joins and 1 left join ( 1-* relation )
where NOT EXISTS (
select key from archive_table
where key = xxxx~key OR key = XXXX-foreign_key
)
EDIT:
With changing requirements (for more filtering) a lot has changed, so I figured I would update this. The construct I marked as XXXX in my example contained a single left join ( where main to secondary table relation is 1-* ) and it appeared relatively fast.
This is where context becomes helpful for understanding the problem:
Initial requirement: pull all vendors, without financial records in 3
tables.
Additional requirements: also exclude based on alternative
payers (1-* relationship). This is what example above is based on.
More requirements: also exclude based on alternative payee (*-* relationship between payer and payee).
Many-to-many join exponentially increased the record count within the construct I labeled XXXX, which in turn produces a lot of unnecessary work. For instance: a single customer with 3 payers, and 3 payees produced 9 rows, with a total of 27 fields to check (3 per row), when in reality there are only 7 unique values.
At this point, moving left-joined tables from main query into sub-queries and splitting them gave significantly better performance.
than any smarter looking alternatives.
select * from lfa1 inner join lfb1
where
( lfa1~lifnr not in ( select lifnr from bsik where bsik~lifnr = lfa1~lifnr )
and lfa1~lifnr not in ( select wyt3~lifnr from wyt3 inner join t024e on wyt3~ekorg = t024e~ekorg and wyt3~lifnr <> wyt3~lifn2
inner join bsik on bsik~lifnr = wyt3~lifn2 where wyt3~lifnr = lfa1~lifnr and t024e~bukrs = lfb1~bukrs )
and lfa1~lifnr not in ( select lfza~lifnr from lfza inner join bsik on bsik~lifnr = lfza~empfk where lfza~lifnr = lfa1~lifnr )
)
and [3 more sets of sub queries like the 3 above, just checking different tables].
My Conclusion:
When exclusion is based on a single field, both not in/not exits work. One might be better than the other, depending on filters you use.
When exclusion is based on 2 or more fields and you don't have many-to-many join in main query, not exists ( select .. from table where id = a.id or id = b.id or... ) appears to be the best.
The moment your exclusion criteria implements a many-to-many relationship within your main query, I would recommend looking for an optimal way to implement multiple sub-queries instead (even having a sub-query for each key-table combination will perform better than a many-to-many join with 1 good sub-query, that looks good).
Anyways, any additional insight into this is welcome.
EDIT2: Although it's slightly off topic, given how my question was about sub-queries, I figured I would post an update. After over a year I had to revisit the solution I worked on to expand it. I learned that proper excluding join works. I just failed horribly at implementing it the first time.
select header~key
from headers left join items on headers~key = items~key
where items~key is null
if it is possible to use results of a sub-query to check more than
than 1 field or use another form of excluding join logic on multiple
fields
No, it is not possible to check two columns in subquery, as SAP Help clearly says:
The clauses in the subquery subquery_clauses must constitute a scalar
subquery.
Scalar is keyword here, i.e. it should return exactly one column.
Your subquery can have multi-column key, and such syntax is completely legit:
SELECT planetype, seatsmax
FROM saplane AS plane
WHERE seatsmax < #wa-seatsmax AND
seatsmax >= ALL ( SELECT seatsocc
FROM sflight
WHERE carrid = #wa-carrid AND
connid = #wa-connid )
however you say that these two fields should be checked against different tables
Those 2 fields are also checked against two more tables
so it's not the case for you. Your only choice seems to be multi-join.
P.S. FOR ALL ENTRIES does not support negation logic, you cannot just use some sort of NOT IN FOR ALL ENTRIES, it won't be that easy.

SQL INNER JOIN update NOT duplicating rows

I have an update query that has an inner join. I expect this query to return two columns because of the join, but it seems that the QUERY is taking only the first row and using that to update the data while ignoring the rest.
Here is my update command
UPDATE [mamd]
SET [Brand_EL] = IIF(CHARINDEX('ELECT', UPPER([mml].[Brand_Desc])) > 0, 'YES', [Brand_EL])
FROM [mamd] [m]
INNER JOIN [ior] [ir] ON [ir].[CLIENT_CUSTOMER_ID] = [m].[CustomerId] COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS
INNER JOIN [maslist] [mml] ON [mml].[Model] = [ir].[MODEL] COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS
If I do a select like this
SELECT [ir].[CLIENT_CUSTOMER_ID], IIF(CHARINDEX('ELECT', UPPER([mml].[Brand_Desc])) > 0, 'YES', [Brand_EL])
FROM [mamd] [m]
INNER JOIN [ior] [ir] ON [ir].[CLIENT_CUSTOMER_ID] = [m].[CustomerId] COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS
INNER JOIN [maslist] [mml] ON [mml].[Model] = [ir].[MODEL] COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS
I get the following data returned
CLIENT_CUSTOMER_ID | Brand_EL
-------------------+----------
980872 | NO
980872 | YES
The reason I think it's only taking one record is because
The value NEVER changes to "YES"
When I run the update command it says only 1 row updated even though it should have gone through two
One thing that might be contributing to the problem is that [mamd] does NOT contain multiple records for that same user; It's a unique field. Since it's a unique field and therefore only has one row, does that mean that it will run that join only once? If that's the case, is there a better way I can do this without nested selects to generate the results?
UPDATE
Hey Everyone,
Just as an update, I took Gordons Advice and use aggregation. In this example that I have, I only cared if the value was "YES' because I only need to know if the customer bought a specific product. So what I ended up doing was grouping by the Customer ID and using the MAX function. If the customer bought a product, "YES" would bubble up to the top. If he didn't it would stay as NO or NULL. In that event, it wouldn't matter.
The behavior is correct and documented, although not in a very clear way:
Use caution when specifying the FROM clause to provide the criteria
for the update operation. The results of an UPDATE statement are
undefined if the statement includes a FROM clause that is not
specified in such a way that only one value is available for each
column occurrence that is updated, that is if the UPDATE statement is
not deterministic. For example, in the UPDATE statement in the
following script, both rows in Table1 meet the qualifications of the
FROM clause in the UPDATE statement; but it is undefined which row
from Table1 is used to update the row in Table2.
What this is trying to say is that a row is only updated once by the update. Which value gets used is indeterminate. So, if you need to decide how you want to handle the multiple matches.

In an EXISTS can my JOIN ON use a value from the original select

I have an order system. Users with can be attached to different orders as a type of different user. They can download documents associated with an order. Documents are only given to certain types of users on the order. I'm having trouble writing the query to check a user's permission to view a document and select the info about the document.
I have the following tables and (applicable) fields:
Docs: DocNo, FileNo
DocAccess: DocNo, UserTypeWithAccess
FileUsers: FileNo, UserType, UserNo
I have the following query:
SELECT Docs.*
FROM Docs
WHERE DocNo = 1000
AND EXISTS (
SELECT * FROM DocAccess
LEFT JOIN FileUsers
ON FileUsers.UserType = DocAccess.UserTypeWithAccess
AND FileUsers.FileNo = Docs.FileNo /* Errors here */
WHERE DocAccess.UserNo = 2000 )
The trouble is that in the Exists Select, it does not recognize Docs (at Docs.FileNo) as a valid table. If I move the second on argument to the where clause it works, but I would rather limit the initial join rather than filter them out after the fact.
I can get around this a couple ways, but this seems like it would be best. Anything I'm missing here? Or is it simply not allowed?
I think this is a limitation of your database engine. In most databases, docs would be in scope for the entire subquery -- including both the where and in clauses.
However, you do not need to worry about where you put the particular clause. SQL is a descriptive language, not a procedural language. The purpose of SQL is to describe the output. The SQL engine, parser, and compiler should be choosing the most optimal execution path. Not always true. But, move the condition to the where clause and don't worry about it.
I am not clear why do you need to join with FileUsers at all in your subquery?
What is the purpose and idea of the query (in plain English)?
In any case, if you do need to join with FileUsers then I suggest to use the inner join and move second filter to the WHERE condition. I don't think you can use it in JOIN condition in subquery - at least I've never seen it used this way before. I believe you can only correlate through WHERE clause.
You have to use aliases to get this working:
SELECT
doc.*
FROM
Docs doc
WHERE
doc.DocNo = 1000
AND EXISTS (
SELECT
*
FROM
DocAccess acc
LEFT OUTER JOIN
FileUsers usr
ON
usr.UserType = acc.UserTypeWithAccess
AND usr.FileNo = doc.FileNo
WHERE
acc.UserNo = 2000
)
This also makes it more clear which table each field belongs to (think about using the same table twice or more in the same query with different aliases).
If you would only like to limit the output to one row you can use TOP 1:
SELECT TOP 1
doc.*
FROM
Docs doc
INNER JOIN
FileUsers usr
ON
usr.FileNo = doc.FileNo
INNER JOIN
DocAccess acc
ON
acc.UserTypeWithAccess = usr.UserType
WHERE
doc.DocNo = 1000
AND acc.UserNo = 2000
Of course the second query works a bit different than the first one (both JOINS are INNER). Depeding on your data model you might even leave the TOP 1 out of that query.

MS-ACCESS: Deleting all rows except for top 1 and updating a table from a query

I'm almost done with this, just a few last hiccups. I now need to delete all records from a table except for the top 1 where readings_miu_id is the "DISTINCT" column. In other words words i need to delete all records from a table other than the first DISTINCT readings_miu_id. I am assuming all I need to do is modify the basic delete statement:
DELETE FROM analyzedCopy2
WHERE readings_miu_id = some_value
But I can't figure out how to change the some_column=some_value part to something like:
where some_column notequal to (select top 1 from analyzedCopy2 as A
where analyzedCopy2.readings_miu_id = A.readings_miu_id)
and then I need to figure out how to use an UPDATE statement to update a table (analyzedCopy2) from a query (which is where all of the values I want stored into column RSSI in table analyzedCopy2 are currently located). I've tried this:
UPDATE analyzedCopy2 from testQuery3 SET analyzedCopy2.RSSI =
(select AvgOfRSSI from testQuery3 INNER JOIN analyzedCopy2 on analyzedCopy2.readings_miu_id = testQuery3.readings_miu_id where analyzedCopy2.readings_miu_id = testQuery3.readings_miu_id)
where analyzedCopy2.readings_miu_id = testQuery3.readings_miu_id
but apparently I can't use FROM inside of an update statement. Any thoughts?
I'm sure I'm going about this a very nonstandard (and possibly if not probably the flat out wrong) way but I'm not being allowed to use vb.net2008 to pull and manipulate then store the data like I would like to so I'm stuck right now using sql statements in ms-access which is a good learning experience (Even if trying to do such odd things as I've been having to do in sql statements is making me beat my head against my deck figuratively of course)
MS Access UPDATE sql statements cannot reference queries, but they can reference tables. So the thing to do is store the query results into a table.
SELECT YourQuery.*
INTO TempTable1
FROM YourQuery
Now you can use TempTable1 in an UPDATE query:
UPDATE TargetTable
INNER JOIN TempTable1 ON TempTable1.TargetTableId = TargetTable.Id
SET TargetTable.TargetField = TempTable1.SourceField
See my answer to this question.
I don't have a copy of access on this machine, and it's been a few years since I dabbled in access, so I'm taking a wild stab here, but can you do a
delete from analyzedCopy2
where readings_miu_id not in (select top 1 readings_miu_id from analyzedCopy2 order by...)
(you'll need the order by to get the proper top 1 record, order by the id maybe?)
I've got no hope of helping you with the second one without a copy of access. I know how I'd do it in TSQL, but access is a whole different kettle of wtf's :-)
I was trying to make too complicated, since all of the records that i needed to pull had the same information in each field that i needed all i had to do was use:
SELECT DISTINCT readings_miu_id, DateRange, RSSI, ColRSSI, Firmware, CFGDate, FreqCorr, Active, OriginCol, ColID, Ownage, SiteID, PremID, prem_group1, prem_group2
FROM analyzedCopy2
ORDER BY readings_miu_id;
in order to pull the top 1 record per readings_miu_id.

SQL - table alias scope

I've just learned ( yesterday ) to use "exists" instead of "in".
BAD
select * from table where nameid in (
select nameid from othertable where otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' )
GOOD
select * from table t where exists (
select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' )
And I have some questions about this:
1) The explanation as I understood was: "The reason why this is better is because only the matching values will be returned instead of building a massive list of possible results". Does that mean that while the first subquery might return 900 results the second will return only 1 ( yes or no )?
2) In the past I have had the RDBMS complainin: "only the first 1000 rows might be retrieved", this second approach would solve that problem?
3) What is the scope of the alias in the second subquery?... does the alias only lives in the parenthesis?
for example
select * from table t where exists (
select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeDesc' )
AND
select nameid from othertable o where t.nameid = o.nameid and otherdesc = 'SomeOtherDesc' )
That is, if I use the same alias ( o for table othertable ) In the second "exist" will it present any problem with the first exists? or are they totally independent?
Is this something Oracle only related or it is valid for most RDBMS?
Thanks a lot
It's specific to each DBMS and depends on the query optimizer. Some optimizers detect IN clause and translate it.
In all DBMSes I tested, alias is only valid inside the ( )
BTW, you can rewrite the query as:
select t.*
from table t
join othertable o on t.nameid = o.nameid
and o.otherdesc in ('SomeDesc','SomeOtherDesc');
And, to answer your questions:
Yes
Yes
Yes
You are treading into complicated territory, known as 'correlated sub-queries'. Since we don't have detailed information about your tables and the key structures, some of the answers can only be 'maybe'.
In your initial IN query, the notation would be valid whether or not OtherTable contains a column NameID (and, indeed, whether OtherDesc exists as a column in Table or OtherTable - which is not clear in any of your examples, but presumably is a column of OtherTable). This behaviour is what makes a correlated sub-query into a correlated sub-query. It is also a routine source of angst for people when they first run into it - invariably by accident. Since the SQL standard mandates the behaviour of interpreting a name in the sub-query as referring to a column in the outer query if there is no column with the relevant name in the tables mentioned in the sub-query but there is a column with the relevant name in the tables mentioned in the outer (main) query, no product that wants to claim conformance to (this bit of) the SQL standard will do anything different.
The answer to your Q1 is "it depends", but given plausible assumptions (NameID exists as a column in both tables; OtherDesc only exists in OtherTable), the results should be the same in terms of the data set returned, but may not be equivalent in terms of performance.
The answer to your Q2 is that in the past, you were using an inferior if not defective DBMS. If it supported EXISTS, then the DBMS might still complain about the cardinality of the result.
The answer to your Q3 as applied to the first EXISTS query is "t is available as an alias throughout the statement, but o is only available as an alias inside the parentheses". As applied to your second example box - with AND connecting two sub-selects (the second of which is missing the open parenthesis when I'm looking at it), then "t is available as an alias throughout the statement and refers to the same table, but there are two different aliases both labelled 'o', one for each sub-query". Note that the query might return no data if OtherDesc is unique for a given NameID value in OtherTable; otherwise, it requires two rows in OtherTable with the same NameID and the two OtherDesc values for each row in Table with that NameID value.
Oracle-specific: When you write a query using the IN clause, you're telling the rule-based optimizer that you want the inner query to drive the outer query. When you write EXISTS in a where clause, you're telling the optimizer that you want the outer query to be run first, using each value to fetch a value from the inner query. See "Difference between IN and EXISTS in subqueries".
Probably.
Alias declared inside subquery lives inside subquery. By the way, I don't think your example with 2 ANDed subqueries is valid SQL. Did you mean UNION instead of AND?
Personally I would use a join, rather than a subquery for this.
SELECT t.*
FROM yourTable t
INNER JOIN otherTable ot
ON (t.nameid = ot.nameid AND ot.otherdesc = 'SomeDesc')
It is difficult to generalize that EXISTS is always better than IN. Logically if that is the case, then SQL community would have replaced IN with EXISTS...
Also, please note that IN and EXISTS are not same, the results may be different when you use the two...
With IN, usually its a Full Table Scan of the inner table once without removing NULLs (so if you have NULLs in your inner table, IN will not remove NULLS by default)... While EXISTS removes NULL and in case of correlated subquery, it runs inner query for every row from outer query.
Assuming there are no NULLS and its a simple query (with no correlation), EXIST might perform better if the row you are finding is not the last row. If it happens to be the last row, EXISTS may need to scan till the end like IN.. so similar performance...
But IN and EXISTS are not interchangeable...