This is a view script, (dbo.Get_Qty_Sum) is a scalar function. I need to understand how the code is combining the scalar function with (c.Schedule_ref, c.Schedule_Line, c.master_part) END) –
Too long for a comment and readability...
If you are using SQL-Server, you need to get the underlying scalar function. Edit your original post question and paste what you find in that. Don't try to post the query as a comment response.
In SQL-Server Management studio, expand the databases folder.
Expand the specific database you are querying against (in case there are multiple databases on your server).
Expand the folder for Programmability
Expand the folder for Scalar-valued Functions
Scroll down to the name of your function "Get_Qty_Sum"
Then right-click, select Script Function as, Drop and Create To, New Query Editor Window.
This will put the entire query in that window for you to look at. THAT is what would be needed to edit and post within your original question. It might even expose to you what your own answer can get, you just did not know how / where it was coming from.
Related
My client wants a pivot table, showing the performance of each month (column headers) per department (row headers). It has to be be possible to insert a 'as-of date' as a parameter, so the user (PHP) can pass that date and the pivot only shows months after that date. My first thought was to write a function. But the pivot has to show a "Totals" column (and a "Totals" row, and a grand total as well). So I wrote a stored procedure, which dynamically puts the pivot together.
The proc works fine, but takes too long to process (which is unsurprising given it's dynamic nature). So I figured I should base an mview on it, or as Microsoft calls it, an indexed view. My approach is to first create a view based on the proc, and then figure out how to materialize it.
It seems that for the first step I need to call the proc inside my view using openquery. That only works if data access is enabled though. So I ran:
SELECT
name,
is_data_access_enabled
FROM sys.servers;
and it turns out is_data_access_enabled = FALSE on our local server (A), but it is TRUE on the another server we use (B). Oddly I can use openquery on B referring to A, something I don't understand but which is probably irrelevant to my question.
I know it's folly (or at least bad practice) to use openquery on server A referring to that same server A, so that's how I got to the point where I ask the community (you people). Would you know a better approach for achieving what I'm trying to do? I use SQL Server 2014.
I am currently working on a project of replacing our old access database queries, but on one of them I am not able to view the actual SQL View.
Does anyone know a way to force the view or to export it somehow?
Error causing problem:
The SQL statement could not be executed because it contains ambiguous outer joins.
Note that I can view the Design View without issue but when I right click on the tab and select SQL View is when I get the error.
I did attempt what #LeeMac mentioned below but same error occurs:
EDIT:
This question is not like Ambiguous Outer Joins?
The OP on that question can actually see and edit their SQL.
My issues is that I cannot see or edit the SQL as the SQL View wont open.
Try executing the following VBA code from the Immediate Window (accessible using Ctrl+G) in the VBA IDE (open the IDE using Alt+F11):
?CurrentDb.QueryDefs("YourQuery").SQL
Replace YourQuery with the name of your query.
This should print the SQL code which comprises your query - you can then analyse the SQL to determine the cause of the error.
It's odd this error would arise when merely viewing the SQL content of the query definition.
It makes me think that the query is perhaps referencing a crosstab subquery which is actually the cause of the error, but which needs to be evaluated in order for MS Access to determine the columns available when viewing the design of the query in question.
Try this:
hit ctrl-g, and from immediate window type in this:
saveastext acQuery,"Name of query","c:\test\mysql.txt"
Access ordinarily doesn't allow you to save invalid queries, so it's strange you somehow got into this situation in the first place.
If you can copy the query, you can easily get to the SQL by changing the query to a passthrough query, either through the GUI or through VBA:
Dim q As DAO.QueryDef
Set q = CurrentDb.QueryDefs!Query1
q.Connect = "ODBC;"
Debug.Print q.SQL
Passthrough queries are not validated, so you can freely read and write anything you want as SQL in it.
Note that this is irreversible when done through VBA. You can only change it back to a normal query once you made the SQL valid again. If you do it through the GUI, you can just not save it, though.
I had this problem and the issue was that i had a subquery that calculated fields but did not actually have a table in it. for example it would calculate first and last day of last month which is 2 calculated fields, then it was the first query in a series of queries that were built off it and the last one wouldnt resolve sql as original poster indicated also gave the ambiguous join message as well as query needs input table (which was that first subquery). i put a table with 1 record in it but didnt use the record and it worked.... so it just a needs a table in it.
I have been tasked with creating a method to copy the contents of an entire database to a central database. There are a number of source databases, all in Access. I've managed to copy the majority of the tables properly, 1:1. I'm using VBScript and ADO to copy the data. It actually works surprisingly well, considering that it's Access.
However
I have 3 tables that include subdatasheets (to those that don't know, a subdatasheet is a visual representation of a 1 to many relationship. You can see related records in another table inside the main table). When My script runs, I get an error. "No value given for one or more required parameters." When I open Access and try to run the same query that I've written in SQL, It pops up message boxes asking for parameters.
If I use the query wizard inside Access to build the select query, no parameters are required and I get no subdatasheet in the result set.
My question is this: how do I write a vanilla SQL query in my VBScript that does not require parameters and just gives me the data that I want?
I've tried copying the SQL from Access and running it through my VBScript and that doesn't seem to do the trick.
Any help is greatly appreciated!
As it turns out, you need to make sure that you've spelled all of the field names properly in your source query. If you've included additional fields that aren't actually in the source or destination table they'll need to be removed too.
I want to modify a column name to new name present in a table
but here problem i want to manually modify the column name present in Triggers or SP's.
Is there a any better way of doing it.
To rename a column am using this
sp_RENAME 'Tablename.old_Column', 'new_column' , 'COLUMN';
similarly how can i do it for triggers or SP's.? without opening each script?
Well, there are a bunch of 3rd party tools that are promising this type of "safe rename", some for free and some are not:
ApexSQL has a free tool for that, as MWillemse wrote in his answer,
RedGate have a commercial tool called SQLPrompt that also have a safe renaming feture, However it is far from being free.
Microsoft have a visual studio add-in called SQL Server Data Tools (or SSDT in the short version), as Dan Guzman wrote in his comment.
I have to say I've never tried any of these specific tools for that specific task, but I do have some experience with SSDT and some of RedGate's products and I consider them to be very good tools. I know nothing about ApexSQL.
Another option is to try and write the sql script yourself, However there are a couple of things to take into consideration before you start:
Can your table be accessed directly from outside the sql server? I mean, is it possible that some software is executing sql statement directly on that table? If so, you might break it when you rename that column, and no sql tool will help in this situation.
Are your sql scripting skills really that good? I consider myself to be fairly experienced with sql server, but I think writing a script like that is beyond my skills. Not that it's impossible for me, but it will probably take too much time and effort for something I can get for free.
Should you decide to write it yourself, there are a few articles that might help you in that task:
First, Microsoft official documentation of sys.sql_expression_dependencies.
Second, an article called Different Ways to Find SQL Server Object Dependencies that is written by a 13 years experience DBA,
and last but not least, a related question on StackExchange's Database Administrator's website.
You could, of course, go with the safe way Gordon Linoff suggested in his comment, or use synonyms like destination-data suggested in his answer, but then you will have to manually modify all of the columns dependencies manually, and from what I understand, that is what you want to avoid.
Renaming the Table column
Deleting the Table column
Alter Table Keys
Best way use Database Projects in Visual Studio.
Refer this links
link 1
link 2
you can do what #GorDon suggested.
Apart from this,you can also play with this query,
select o.name, sc.* from sys.syscomments sc inner join sys.objects o
on sc.id=o.object_id where sc.text like '%oldcolumnname%'
this will return list of all proc and trigger.Also you can modify filter to get exact list.then it will be very easy for you to modify,manually.
But whatever you decide,don't simply drop old column.
To be safe,even keep back up.
This suggestion relates to Oracle DB, however there may be equivalent solutions in other DBMS's.
A temporary solution to your issue is to create a pseudocolumn. This solution looks a little hacky because the syntax for a pseudocolumn requires an expression. The simplest expression I can think of is the case statement below. Let me know if you can make it more simple.
ALTER TABLE <<tablename>> ADD (
<<new_column_name>> AS (
CASE
WHEN 1=1 THEN <<tablename>>.<<old_column_name>>
END)
);
This strategy basically creates a new column on the fly by evaluating the case statement and copying the value of <<old_column_value>> to <<new_column_value>>. Because you are dynamically interpolating this column there is a performance penalty vs just selecting the original column.
The one gotcha is that this will only work if you are duplicating a column once. Multiple pseudocolumns cannot contain duplicate expressions in Oracle.
The other strategy you can consider is to create a view and you can name the columns whatever you want. You can even INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE (execute DML) against views, but this would give you a whole new table_name, not just a new column. You could however rename the old table, and name your view the same as your old table. This also has a performance penalty vs just accessing the underlying table.
You might want to replace that text in definition. However, you will be needing a dedicated administrator connection in sql server. Versions also vary in setting up a dedicated administrator connection. Setting up the startup parameter by adding ;-T7806 under advanced. And by adding Admin: before the servername upon logging in. By then, you may be able to modify the value of the definition.
I generate a ClearQuest query using the Query Wizard. In the Query Editor, I am able to select a filter for a given field. However, I want to refine the query using the SQL Editor, but then I loose the ability to have a dynamic filter. How can I resolve this.
Pretty sure the answer is "you can't" since the SQL generated includes the value entered for any dynamic filters set up when you built the query, and as you say, the act of editing the SQL prevents using the Query Editor to make further changes.
Your best bet is to figure out a way to use the Query Editor to do what you need the SQL Editor for. Start another question.