I need some help with below query: I want to update every alternate row of a table given some conditions, which includes multiple tables I am not able to use windows function under update how can I modify this query to work
UPDATE loanacct
SET
collection_officer_no =
(
CASE
WHEN
ROW_NUMBER()OVER (ORDER BY acctrefno) %2 = 0
THEN
4
ELSE
7
END
)
WHERE acctrefno in
(
SELECT
[acctrefno]
FROM
[NLS].[dbo].[loanacct] L
INNER JOIN nlsusers U ON U.userno = L.collection_officer_no
WHERE
U.username like 'house' AND
L.loan_group_no in ( '2', '4', '5') AND`enter code here`
L.days_past_due > 25 AND
status_code_no = 0)
You can use a updatable CTE. This is pseudo-SQL, but should get you on the right path:
WITH CTE AS(
SELECT {YourColumns},
ROW_NUMBER() OVER (/* PARTITION BY ??? */ ORDER BY {Column} AS RN
FROM YourTable
WHERE ...
)
UPDATE CTE
SET ...
WHERE RN % 2 = 0;
Related
I have an oracle query as follows but when I make changes to pagination the results are different. what should i pass for my code
SELECT *
FROM (
SELECT b.*,
ROWNUM r__
FROM (
select a.KODE_KLAIM,
a.NO_SS,
a.LA,
a.NAMA_TK,
a.KODE_K,
(
select tk.TEM_LAHIR
from KN.VW_KN_TK tk
where tk.KODE_K = a.KODE_K and rownum=1
) TEM_LAHIR,
(
select TO_CHAR(tk.TLAHIR, 'DD/MM/RRRR')
from KN.VW_KTK tk
where tk.KODE_K = a.KODE_K
and rownum=1
) TLAHIR
from PN.KLAIM a
where nvl(a.STATUS_BATAL,'X') = 'T'
and A.NOMOR IS NOT NULL
and A.TIPE_KLAIM = 'JPN01'
)b
)
where 1 = 1
WHERE ROWNUM < ( ( ? * ? ) + 1 )
WHERE r__ >= ( ( ( ? - 1 ) * ? ) + 1 )
but i run this query i have result ORA-00900: invalid SQL statement
You have three WHERE clauses at the end (and no ORDER BY clause). To make it syntactically valid you could change the second and third WHERE clauses to AND.
However, you mention pagination so what you probably want is to use:
SELECT *
FROM (
SELECT b.*,
ROWNUM r__
FROM (
select ...
from ...
ORDER BY something
)b
WHERE ROWNUM < :page_size * :page_number + 1
)
WHERE r__ >= ( :page_number - 1 ) * :page_size + 1
Note: You can replace the named bind variables with anonymous bind variables if you want.
Or, if you are using Oracle 12 or later then you can use the OFFSET x ROWS FETCH FIRST y ROWS ONLY syntax:
select ...
from ...
ORDER BY something
OFFSET (:page_number - 1) * :page_size ROWS
FETCH FIRST :page_size ROWS ONLY;
Additionally, you have several correlated sub-queries such as:
select tk.TEM_LAHIR
from KN.VW_KN_TK tk
where tk.KODE_K = a.KODE_K and rownum=1
This will find the first matching row that the SQL engine happens to read from the datafile and is effectively finding a random row. If you want a specific row then you need an ORDER BY clause and you need to filter using ROWNUM AFTER the ORDER BY clause has been applied.
From Oracle 12, the correlated sub-query would be:
select tk.TEM_LAHIR
from KN.VW_KN_TK tk
where tk.KODE_K = a.KODE_K
ORDER BY something
FETCH FIRST ROW ONLY
I have a list and the returned table looks like this. I took the preview of only one car but there are many more.
What I need to do now is check that the current KM value is larger then the previous and smaller then the next. If this is not the case I need to make a field called Trustworthy and should fill it with either 1 or 0 (true/ false).
The result that I have so far is this:
validKMstand and validkmstand2 are how I calculate it. It did not work in one list so that is why I separated it.
In both of my tries my code does not work.
Here is the code that I have so far.
FullList as (
SELECT
*
FROM
eMK_Mileage as Mileage
)
, ValidChecked1 as (
SELECT
UL1.*,
CASE WHEN EXISTS(
SELECT TOP(1)UL2.*
FROM FullList AS UL2
WHERE
UL2.FK_CarID = UL1.FK_CarID AND
UL1.KM_Date > UL2.KM_Date AND
UL1.KM > UL2.KM
ORDER BY UL2.KM_Date DESC
)
THEN 1
ELSE 0
END AS validkmstand
FROM FullList as UL1
)
, ValidChecked2 as (
SELECT
List1.*,
(CASE WHEN List1.KM > ulprev.KM
THEN 1
ELSE 0
END
) AS validkmstand2
FROM ValidChecked1 as List1 outer apply
(SELECT TOP(1)UL3.*
FROM ValidChecked1 AS UL3
WHERE
UL3.FK_CarID = List1.FK_CarID AND
UL3.KM_Date <= List1.KM_Date AND
List1.KM > UL3.KM
ORDER BY UL3.KM_Date DESC) ulprev
)
SELECT * FROM ValidChecked2 order by FK_CarID, KM_Date
Maybe something like this is what you are looking for?
;with data as
(
select *, rn = row_number() over (partition by fk_carid order by km_date)
from eMK_Mileage
)
select
d.FK_CarID, d.KM, d.KM_Date,
valid =
case
when (d.KM > d_prev.KM /* or d_prev.KM is null */)
and (d.KM < d_next.KM /* or d_next.KM is null */)
then 1 else 0
end
from data d
left join data d_prev on d.FK_CarID = d_prev.FK_CarID and d_prev.rn = d.rn - 1
left join data d_next on d.FK_CarID = d_next.FK_CarID and d_next.rn = d.rn + 1
order by d.FK_CarID, d.KM_Date
With SQL Server versions 2012+ you could have used the lag() and lead() analytical functions to access the previous/next rows, but in versions before you can accomplish the same thing by numbering rows within partitions of the set. There are other ways too, like using correlated subqueries.
I left a couple of conditions commented out that deal with the first and last rows for every car - maybe those should be considered valid is they fulfill only one part of the comparison (since the previous/next rows are null)?
i am using Microsoft SQL Server 2008
i would like to save the result of a subquery to reuse it in a following subquery.
Is this possible?
What is best practice to do this? (I am very new to SQL)
My query looks like:
INSERT INTO [dbo].[TestTable]
(
[a]
,[b]
)
SELECT
(
SELECT TOP 1 MAT_WS_ID
FROM #TempTableX AS X_ALIAS
WHERE OUTERBASETABLE.LT_ALL_MATERIAL = X_ALIAS.MAT_RM_NAME
)
,(
SELECT TOP 1 MAT_WS_NAME
FROM #TempTableY AS Y_ALIAS
WHERE Y_ALIAS.MAT_WS_ID = MAT_WS_ID
--(
--SELECT TOP 1 MAT_WS_ID
--FROM #TempTableX AS X_ALIAS
--WHERE OUTERBASETABLE.LT_ALL_MATERIAL = X_ALIAS.MAT_RM_NAME
--)
)
FROM [dbo].[LASERTECHNO] AS OUTERBASETABLE
My question is:
Is this correct what i did.
I replaced the second SELECT Statement in the WHERE-Clause for [b] (which is commented out and exactly the same as for [a]), with the result of the first SELECT Statement of [a] (=MAT_WS_ID).
It seems to give the right results.
But i dont understand why!
I mean MAT_WS_ID is part of both temporary tables X_ALIAS and Y_ALIAS.
So in the SELECT statement for [b], in the scope of the [b]-select-query, MAT_WS_ID could only be known from the Y_ALIAS table. (Or am i wrong, i am more a C++, maybe the scope things in SQL and C++ are totally different)
I just wannt to know what is the best way in SQL Server to reuse an scalar select result.
Or should i just dont care and copy the select for every column and the sql server optimizes it by its own?
One approach would be outer apply:
SELECT mat.MAT_WS_ID
, (
SELECT TOP 1 MAT_WS_NAME
FROM #TempTableY AS Y_ALIAS
WHERE Y_ALIAS.MAT_WS_ID = mat.MAT_WS_ID
)
FROM [dbo].[LASERTECHNO] AS OUTERBASETABLE
OUTER APPLY
(
SELECT TOP 1 MAT_WS_ID
FROM #TempTableX AS X_ALIAS
WHERE OUTERBASETABLE.LT_ALL_MATERIAL = X_ALIAS.MAT_RM_NAME
) as mat
You could rank rows in #TempTableX and #TempTableY partitioning them by MAT_RM_NAME in the former and by MAT_WS_ID in the latter, then use normal joins with filtering by rownum = 1 in both tables (rownum being the column containing the ranking numbers in each of the two tables):
WITH x_ranked AS (
SELECT
*,
rownum = ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY MAT_RM_NAME ORDER BY (SELECT 1))
FROM #TempTableX
),
y_ranked AS (
SELECT
*,
rownum = ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY MAT_WS_ID ORDER BY (SELECT 1))
FROM #TempTableY
)
INSERT INTO dbo.TestTable (a, b)
SELECT
x.MAT_WS_ID,
y.MAT_WS_NAME
FROM dbo.LASERTECHNO t
LEFT JOIN x_ranked x ON t.LT_ALL_MATERIAL = x.MAT_RM_NAME AND x.rownum = 1
LEFT JOIN y_ranked y ON x.MAT_WS_ID = y.MAT_WS_ID AND y.rownum = 1
;
The ORDER BY (SELECT 1) bit is a trick to specify an indeterminate ordering, which, accordingly, would result in indeterminate rownum = 1 rows picked by the query. That is to more or less duplicate your TOP 1 without an explicit order, but I would recommend you to specify a more sensible ORDER BY clause to make the results more predictable.
I have been working on a query to search and delete duplicate column values. Currently I have this query (returns duplicates):
SELECT NUIP, FECHA_REGISTRO
FROM registros_civiles_nacimiento
WHERE NUIP IN (
SELECT NUIP
FROM registros_civiles_nacimiento
GROUP BY NUIP
HAVING (COUNT(NUIP) > 1)
) order by NUIP
This work returning a table like this:
NUIP FECHA_REGISTRO
38120100138 1975-05-30
38120100138 1977-08-31
40051800275 1980-09-24
40051800275 1999-11-29
42110700118 1972-10-26
42110700118 1982-04-22
44030700535 1982-10-19
44030700535 1993-05-05
46072300777 1991-01-17
46072300777 1979-03-30
The thing is that I need to delete the rows with duplicate column values. But I need to delete the row with the oldest date, for example, for the given result, once the needed query is performed, this is the list of result that must be kept:
NUIP FECHA_REGISTRO
38120100138 1977-08-31
40051800275 1999-11-29
42110700118 1982-04-22
44030700535 1993-05-05
46072300777 1991-01-17
How can I do this using plain SQL?
--PULL YOUR SELECT OF RECS WITH DUPES INTO A TEMP TABLE
--(OR CREATE A NEW TABLE SO THAT YOU CAN KEEP THEM AROUND FOR LATER IN CASE)
SELECT NUIP,FECHA_REGISTRO
INTO #NUIP
FROM SO_NUIP
WHERE NUIP IN (
SELECT NUIP
FROM SO_NUIP
GROUP BY NUIP
HAVING (COUNT(NUIP) > 1)
)
--CREATE FLAG FOR DETERMINIG DUPES
ALTER TABLE #NUIP ADD DUPLICATETOREMOVE bit
--USE `RANK()` TO SET FLAG
UPDATE #NUIP
SET DUPLICATETOREMOVE = CASE X.RANK
WHEN 1 THEN 1
ELSE 0
END
--SELECT *
FROM #NUIP A
INNER JOIN (SELECT NUIP,FECHA_REGISTRO,RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY [NUIP] ORDER BY FECHA_REGISTRO ASC) AS RANK
FROM #NUIP) X ON X.NUIP = A.NUIP AND X.FECHA_REGISTRO = A.FECHA_REGISTRO
--HERE IS YOUR DELETE LIST
SELECT *
FROM so_registros_civiles_nacimiento R
JOIN #NUIP N ON N.NUIP = R.NUIP AND N.FECHA_REGISTRO = R.FECHA_REGISTRO
WHERE N.DUPLICATETOREMOVE = 1
--HERE IS YOUR KEEP LIST
SELECT *
FROM so_registros_civiles_nacimiento R
JOIN #NUIP N ON N.NUIP = R.NUIP AND N.FECHA_REGISTRO = R.FECHA_REGISTRO
WHERE N.DUPLICATETOREMOVE = 0
--ZAP THEM AND COMMIT YOUR TRANSACTION, YOU'VE STILL GOT A REC OF THE DELETEDS FOR AS LONG AS THE SCOPE OF YOUR #NUIP
BEGIN TRAN --COMMIT --ROLLBACK
DELETE FROM so_registros_civiles_nacimiento
JOIN #NUIP N ON N.NUIP = R.NUIP AND N.FECHA_REGISTRO = R.FECHA_REGISTRO
WHERE N.DUPLICATETOREMOVE = 1
You can use analytical functions for this:
;WITH CTE AS
(
SELECT *, ROW_NUMBER() OVER(PARTITION BY NUIP ORDER BY FECHA_REGISTRO DESC) RN
FROM registros_civiles_nacimiento
)
DELETE FROM CTE
WHERE RN > 1;
Use RANK() to create the result set ordered by date
Use WHERE EXISTS to delete from the source.
(Note: if you run the rank function over your duplicates, you should get your results. I've just referred to the whole table below)
This statement works in Oracle (replace the select * with delete if it works for you:
SELECT *
FROM registros_civiles_nacimiento ALL_
WHERE EXISTS
(SELECT * FROM
(SELECT * FROM
(SELECT NUIP,
FECHA_REGISTRO,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY NUIP ORDER BY FECHA_REGISTRO) AS ORDER_
FROM registros_civiles_nacimiento)
WHERE ORDER_ = 1) OLDEST
WHERE ALL_.NUIP = OLDEST.NUIP
AND ALL_.FECHA_REGISTRO = OLDEST.FECHA_REGISTRO);
I have 2 two tables questionpool and question where question is a many to one of question pool. I have created a query using a sub select query which returns the correct random results but I need to return more than one column from the question table.
The intent of the query is to return a random test from the 'question' table for each 'QuizID' from the 'Question Pool' table.
SELECT QuestionPool.QuestionPoolID,
(
SELECT TOP (1) Question.QuestionPoolID
FROM Question
WHERE Question.GroupID = QuestionPool.QuestionPoolID
ORDER BY NEWID()
)
FROM QuestionPool
WHERE QuestionPool.QuizID = '5'
OUTER APPLY is suited to this:
Select *
FROM QuestionPool
OUTER APPLY
(
SELECT TOP 1 *
FROM Question
WHERE Question.GroupID = QuestionPool.QuestionPoolID
ORDER BY NEWID()
) x
WHERE QuestionPool.QuizID = '5'
Another example of OUTER APPLY use http://www.ienablemuch.com/2012/04/outer-apply-walkthrough.html
Live test: http://www.sqlfiddle.com/#!3/d8afc/1
create table m(i int, o varchar(10));
insert into m values
(1,'alpha'),(2,'beta'),(3,'delta');
create table x(i int, j varchar, k varchar(10));
insert into x values
(1,'a','hello'),
(1,'b','howdy'),
(2,'x','great'),
(2,'y','super'),
(3,'i','uber'),
(3,'j','neat'),
(3,'a','nice');
select m.*, '' as sep, r.*
from m
outer apply
(
select top 1 *
from x
where i = m.i
order by newid()
) r
Not familiar with SQL server, but I hope this would do:
Select QuestionPool.QuestionPoolID, v.QuestionPoolID, v.xxx -- etc
FROM QuestionPool
JOIN
(
SELECT TOP (1) *
FROM Question
WHERE Question.GroupID = QuestionPool.QuestionPoolID
ORDER BY NEWID()
) AS v ON v.QuestionPoolID = QuestionPool.QuestionPoolID
WHERE QuestionPool.QuizID = '5'
Your query appears to be bringing back an arbitrary Question.QuestionPoolId for each QuestionPool.QuestionPoolId subject to the QuizId filter.
I think the following query does this:
select qp.QuestionPoolId, max(q.QuestionPoolId) as any_QuestionPoolId
from Question q join
qp.QuestionPoolId qp
on q.GroupId = qp.QuestionPoolId
WHERE QuestionPool.QuizID = '5'
group by qp.QuestionPoolId
This returns a particular question.
The following query would allow you to get more fields:
select qp.QuestionPoolId, q.*
from (select q.*, row_number() over (partition by GroupId order by (select NULL)) as randrownum
from Question q
) join
(select qp.QuestionPoolId, max(QuetionPool qp
on q.GroupId = qp.QuestionPoolId
WHERE QuestionPool.QuizID = '5' and
randrownum = 1
This uses the row_number() to arbitrarily enumerate the rows. The "Select NULL" provides the random ordering (alternatively, you could use "order by GroupId".
Common Table Expressions (CTEs) are rather handy for this type of thing...
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms175972(v=sql.90).aspx