First here's the relevant code:
create table customer(
customer_mail_address varchar(255) not null,
subscription_start date not null,
subscription_end date, check (subscription_end !< subcription start)
constraint pk_customer primary key (customer_mail_address)
)
create table watchhistory(
customer_mail_address varchar(255) not null,
watch_date date not null,
constraint pk_watchhistory primary key (movie_id, customer_mail_address, watch_date)
)
alter table watchhistory
add constraint fk_watchhistory_ref_customer foreign key (customer_mail_address)
references customer (customer_mail_address)
on update cascade
on delete no action
go
So i want to use a UDF to constrain the watch_date in watchhistory between the subscription_start and subscription_end in customer. I can't seem to figure it out.
Check constraints can't validate data against other tables, the docs say (emphasis mine):
[ CONSTRAINT constraint_name ]
{
...
CHECK [ NOT FOR REPLICATION ] ( logical_expression )
}
logical_expression
Is a logical expression used in a CHECK constraint and returns TRUE or
FALSE. logical_expression used with CHECK constraints cannot
reference another table but can reference other columns in the same
table for the same row. The expression cannot reference an alias data
type.
That being said, you can create a scalar function that validates your date, and use the scalar function on the check condition instead:
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.ufnValidateWatchDate (
#WatchDate DATE,
#CustomerMailAddress VARCHAR(255))
RETURNS BIT
AS
BEGIN
IF EXISTS (
SELECT
'supplied watch date is between subscription start and end'
FROM
customer AS C
WHERE
C.customer_mail_address = #CustomerMailAddress AND
#WatchDate BETWEEN C.subscription_start AND C.subscription_end)
BEGIN
RETURN 1
END
RETURN 0
END
Now add your check constraint so it validates that the result of the function is 1:
ALTER TABLE watchhistory
ADD CONSTRAINT CHK_watchhistory_ValidWatchDate
CHECK (dbo.ufnValidateWatchDate(watch_date, customer_mail_address) = 1)
This is not a direct link to the other table, but a workaround you can do to validate the date. Keep in mind that if you update the customer dates after the watchdate insert, dates will be inconsistent. The only way to ensure full consistency in this case would be with a few triggers.
Related
I am trying to make a procedure that takes makes potential empty "received" fields use the current date. I made a sequence called Order_number_seq that populates the order number (Ono) column. I don't know how to link errors in the orders table to a entry in the Orders_errors table.
this is what i have so far:
CREATE PROCEDURE Add_Order
AS BEGIN
UPDATE Orders
CREATE Sequence Order_number_seq
Start with 1,
Increment by 1;
UPDATE Orders SET received = GETDATE WHERE received = null;
These are the tables I am working with:
Orders table
(
Ono Number Not Null,
Cno Number Not Null,
Eno Number Not Null,
Received Date Null,
Shipped_Date Date Null,
Creation_Date Date Not Null,
Created_By VARCHAR2(10) Not Null,
Last_Update_Date Date Not Null,
Last_Updated_By VARCHAR2(10) Not Null,
CONSTRAINT Ono_PK PRIMARY KEY (Ono),
CONSTRAINT Cno_FK FOREIGN KEY (Cno)
REFERENCES Customers_Proj2 (Cno)
);
and
Order_Errors table
(
Ono Number Not Null,
Transaction_Date Date Not Null,
Message VARCHAR(100) Not Null
);
Any help is appreciated, especially on linking the orders table errors to create a new entry in OrderErrors table.
Thanks in advance.
Contrary to Martin Drautzburg's answer, there is no foreign key for the order number on the Order_Errors table. There is an Ono column which appears to serve that purpose, but it is not a foreign as far as Oracle is concerned. To make it a foreign key, you need to add a constraint much like the Cno_FK on Orders. An example:
CREATE TABLE Order_Errors
(
Ono Number Not Null,
Transaction_Date Date Not Null,
Message VARCHAR(100) Not Null,
CONSTRAINT Order_Errors_Orders_FK FOREIGN KEY (Ono) REFERENCES Orders (Ono)
);
Or, if your Order_Errors table already exists and you don't want to drop it, you can use an ALTER TABLE statement:
ALTER TABLE Order_Errors
ADD CONSTRAINT Order_Errors_Orders_FK FOREIGN KEY (Ono) REFERENCES Orders (Ono)
;
As for the procedure, I'm inclined to say what you're trying to do does not lend itself well to a PROCEDURE. If your intention is that you want the row to use default values when inserted, a trigger is better suited for this purpose. (There is some performance hit to using a trigger, so that's a consideration.)
-- Create sequence to be used
CREATE SEQUENCE Order_Number_Sequence
START WITH 1
INCREMENT BY 1
/
-- Create trigger for insert
CREATE TRIGGER Orders_Insert_Trigger
BEFORE INSERT ON Orders
FOR EACH ROW
DECLARE
BEGIN
IF :NEW.Ono IS NULL
THEN
SELECT Order_Number_Sequence.NEXTVAL INTO :NEW.Ono FROM DUAL;
END IF;
IF :NEW.Received IS NULL
THEN
SELECT CURRENT_DATE INTO :NEW.O_Received FROM DUAL;
END IF;
END;
/
This trigger will then be executed on every single row inserted into the Orders table. It checks if the Ono column was NULL and replaces it with an ID from the sequence if so. (Be careful that you don't ever provide an ID that will later be generated by the sequence; it will get a primary key conflict error.) It then checks if the received date is NULL and sets it to the current date, using the CURRENT_DATE function (which I believe was one of the things you were trying to figure out), if so.
(Side note: Other databases may not require a trigger to do this and instead could use a default value. I believe PostgreSQL, for instance, allows the use of function calls in its DEFAULT clauses, and that is how its SERIAL auto-increment type is implemented.)
If you are merely trying to update existing data, I would think the UPDATE statements by themselves would suffice. Is there a reason this needs to be a PROCEDURE?
One other note. Order_Errors has no primary key. You probably want to have an auto-incrementating surrogate key column, or at least create an index on its Ono column if you only ever intend to select off that column.
There are a number of confusing things in your question:
(1) You are creating a sequence inside a procedure. Does this even compile?
(2) Your procedure does not have any parameters. It just updates the RECEIVED column of all rows.
(3) You are not telling us what you want in the MESSAGE column.
My impression is that you should first go "back to the books" before you ask questions here.
As for your original question
how to link errors in the orders table to a entry in the Orders_errors
table.
This is aleady (correctly) done. The Orders_error table contains an ONO foreign key which points to an order.
create table Linq_TB
{
url_id int NOTNULL,
Pg_Name nvarchar(50) NOTNULL,
URL nvarchar(50) NUTNULL,
CONSTRAINT Linq_id PRIMARY KEY (url_id,DBCC Checkident(Linq_TB,RESEED,0) case url_id not in(select URL_Id from URL_TB ))
}
I want to make a table which it's primary key is Linq_id and gets it's value from both the url_id and identity with start from 1 and increments 1 by 1. url_id is a foreign key. For example if url_id is 1, linq_id's will be 11, 12, 13,... and I also want to reset linq_id identity when the url_id changes.
What should the query be? The query above doesn't work, why?
Thanks in advance
Well, a constraint contains conditions and not code to be executed. You should consider using a stored procedure for your task and also a homegrown method of assigning IDs.
However, it is not a common practice to have your primary keys 'pretty' or formatted, as there is no real benefit (except maybe for debugging purposes maybe).
I do not recommend executing DBCC whenever your url_ID changes. This has a great negative impact on performance.
Why don't you leave the IDs like they are?
You can do this with the following table and trigger definitions:
CREATE TABLE Linq_TB
(
url_id INT NOT NULL,
Linq_id INT NOT NULL,
Pg_Name NVARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,
URL NVARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_Link_TB PRIMARY KEY (url_id, Linq_id),
CONSTRAINT FK_URL_TB_URL_ID FOREIGN KEY (url_id) REFERENCES URL_TB (url_id)
)
GO
CREATE TRIGGER tr_Linq_TB_InsertUpdate
ON Linq_TB
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
INSERT INTO Linq_TB
SELECT i.url_id,
ISNULL(tb.Linq_id, 0)
+ row_number() over (partition by i.url_id order by (select 1)),
i.Pg_Name, i.URL
FROM inserted i
LEFT OUTER JOIN
(
SELECT url_id, MAX(Linq_ID) Linq_id
FROM Linq_TB
GROUP BY url_id
) tb ON i.url_id = tb.url_id
GO
The CREATE TABLE defines your columns and constraints. And, the trigger creates the logic to generate a sequence value in your Linq_id column for each url_id.
Note that the logic in the trigger is not complete. A couple of issues are not addressed: 1) If the url_id changes for a row, the trigger doesn't update the Link_id, and 2) deleting rows will lead to gaps in the Linq_TB column sequence.
we want to create a trigger which checks if a new measurement (=messung) point lies within the current glacier shape (=umriss).
are tables look like this:
glacier shape (=Umriss)
create table umriss
(
umr_nr number (4) not null,
umr_datum date,
GLST_ID number (4) not null,
shape mdsys.sdo_geometry,
GLETSCHER_ID number (3) not null
)
;
alter table umriss
add constraint umriss_glst_pk
primary key (umr_nr, GLST_ID, GLETSCHER_ID)
;
ALTER TABLE umriss
ADD CONSTRAINT umriss_gletscherstand_fk
FOREIGN KEY (GLST_ID, GLETSCHER_ID)
REFERENCES GLETSCHERSTAND(GLST_ID, GLETSCHER_ID);
new measurement (=Messung)
CREATE TABLE MESSUNG
(
MESS_NR number (4) not null,
MESS_DAT date,
MESS_AKK number (20) NOT NULL,
MESS_SCHMELZ number (20) NOT NULL,
SHAPE mdsys.sdo_geometry,
MESS_BILD blob,
KMPGN_NR NUMBER (4) NOT NULL
);
ALTER TABLE MESSUNG
ADD CONSTRAINT messung_pk
PRIMARY KEY (MESS_NR);
ALTER TABLE MESSUNG
ADD CONSTRAINT messung_messkampagne_fk
FOREIGN KEY (KMPGN_NR)
REFERENCES MESSKAMPAGNE(KMPGN_NR);
Trigger
CREATE OR REPLACE
TRIGGER MESSUNG_in_UMRISS_TRI
BEFORE INSERT OR UPDATE ON MESSUNG
FOR EACH ROW
DECLARE
num_check NUMBER;
BEGIN
SELECT COUNT (*) INTO num_check
FROM UMRISS u
WHERE mdsys.sdo_contains (u.shape, :NEW.point) = 'TRUE';
IF num_check <> 1
THEN
RAISE_APPLICATION_ERROR (=20500, 'Messung in keinem Umriss')
END IF;
END;
How do we iplement the function so the trigger only checks within the most curretn glacier shape?
Thanks for your help!
This will return the one row fron UMRISS which matches the most recent date in the table.
SELECT COUNT (*) INTO num_check
FROM UMRISS u
WHERE mdsys.sdo_contains (u.shape, :NEW.point) = 'TRUE'
AND u.umr_datum = ( select max(d.;umr_datum) from UMRISS d );
This sort of query is the price for keeping historical data in teh same table as the current record.
it seems that POINT ist not defined in your example?
However, you might consider a check constraint because a trigger would only be enforced when a MESSUNG record is inserted or updated, but not when UMRISS is changed
alter table MESSUNG add constraint MESSUNG_CC_CONTAINS check(mdsys.sdo_contains (shape, point) = 'TRUE')
In case you're frequently updating the UMRISS records it might not be feasable at all to enforce such a constraint because Oracle would have to check all MESSUNG records when UMRISS is updated or deleted. Perhaps consider an additional mapping table between MESSUNG and UMRISS that you can update separately.
I use SQL Server 2008
I use a CHECK CONSTRAINT on multiple columns in the same table to try to validate data input.
I receive an error:
Column CHECK constraint for column
'AAAA' references another column,
table 'XXXX'.
CHECK CONSTRAINT does not work in this way.
Any other way to implement this on a single table without using FK?
Thanks
Here an example of my code
CREATE TABLE dbo.Test
(
EffectiveStartDate dateTime2(2) NOT NULL,
EffectiveEndDate dateTime2(2) NOT NULL
CONSTRAINT CK_CmsSponsoredContents_EffectiveEndDate CHECK (EffectiveEndDate > EffectiveStartDate),
);
Yes, define the CHECK CONSTRAINT at the table level
CREATE TABLE foo (
bar int NOT NULL,
fred varchar(50) NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT CK_foo_stuff CHECK (bar = 1 AND fred ='fish')
)
You are declaring it inline as a column constraint
...
fred varchar(50) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT CK_foo_fred CHECK (...)
...
Edit, easier to post than describe. Fixed your commas.
CREATE TABLE dbo.Test
(
EffectiveStartDate dateTime2(2) NOT NULL,
EffectiveEndDate dateTime2(2) NOT NULL, --need comma
CONSTRAINT CK_CmsSponsoredContents_EffectiveEndDate CHECK (EffectiveEndDate > EffectiveStartDate) --no comma
);
Of course, the question remains are you using a CHECK constraint where it should be an FK constraint...?
Check constraints can refer to a single column or to the whole record.
Use this syntax for record-level constraints:
ALTER TABLE MyTable
ADD CONSTRAINT MyCheck
CHECK (...your check expression...)
You can simply apply your validation in a trigger on the table especially that either way the operation will be rolled back if the check failed.
I found it more useful for CONSTRAINT using case statements.
ALTER TABLE dbo.ProductStock
ADD
CONSTRAINT CHK_Cost_Sales
CHECK ( CASE WHEN (IS_NOT_FOR_SALE=0 and SAL_CPU <= SAL_PRICE) THEN 1
WHEN (IS_NOT_FOR_SALE=1 ) THEN 1 ELSE 0 END =1 )
How could I set a constraint on a table so that only one of the records has its isDefault bit field set to 1?
The constraint is not table scope, but one default per set of rows, specified by a FormID.
Use a unique filtered index
On SQL Server 2008 or higher you can simply use a unique filtered index
CREATE UNIQUE INDEX IX_TableName_FormID_isDefault
ON TableName(FormID)
WHERE isDefault = 1
Where the table is
CREATE TABLE TableName(
FormID INT NOT NULL,
isDefault BIT NOT NULL
)
For example if you try to insert many rows with the same FormID and isDefault set to 1 you will have this error:
Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.TableName' with unique
index 'IX_TableName_FormID_isDefault'. The duplicate key value is (1).
Source: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc280372.aspx
Here's a modification of Damien_The_Unbeliever's solution that allows one default per FormID.
CREATE VIEW form_defaults
AS
SELECT FormID
FROM whatever
WHERE isDefault = 1
GO
CREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX ix_form_defaults on form_defaults (FormID)
GO
But the serious relational folks will tell you this information should just be in another table.
CREATE TABLE form
FormID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY
DefaultWhateverID int FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES Whatever(ID)
From a normalization perspective, this would be an inefficient way of storing a single fact.
I would opt to hold this information at a higher level, by storing (in a different table) a foreign key to the identifier of the row which is considered to be the default.
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Foo](
[Id] [int] NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT [PK_Foo] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED
(
[Id] ASC
) ON [PRIMARY]
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
CREATE TABLE [dbo].[DefaultSettings](
[DefaultFoo] [int] NULL
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
ALTER TABLE [dbo].[DefaultSettings] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_DefaultSettings_Foo] FOREIGN KEY([DefaultFoo])
REFERENCES [dbo].[Foo] ([Id])
GO
ALTER TABLE [dbo].[DefaultSettings] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_DefaultSettings_Foo]
GO
You could use an insert/update trigger.
Within the trigger after an insert or update, if the count of rows with isDefault = 1 is more than 1, then rollback the transaction.
CREATE VIEW vOnlyOneDefault
AS
SELECT 1 as Lock
FROM <underlying table>
WHERE Default = 1
GO
CREATE UNIQUE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_vOnlyOneDefault on vOnlyOneDefault (Lock)
GO
You'll need to have the right ANSI settings turned on for this.
I don't know about SQLServer.But if it supports Function-Based Indexes like in Oracle, I hope this can be translated, if not, sorry.
You can do an index like this on suposed that default value is 1234, the column is DEFAULT_COLUMN and ID_COLUMN is the primary key:
CREATE
UNIQUE
INDEX only_one_default
ON my_table
( DECODE(DEFAULT_COLUMN, 1234, -1, ID_COLUMN) )
This DDL creates an unique index indexing -1 if the value of DEFAULT_COLUMN is 1234 and ID_COLUMN in any other case. Then, if two columns have DEFAULT_COLUMN value, it raises an exception.
The question implies to me that you have a primary table that has some child records and one of those child records will be the default record. Using address and a separate default table here is an example of how to make that happen using third normal form. Of course I don't know if it's valuable to answer something that is so old but it struck my fancy.
--drop table dev.defaultAddress;
--drop table dev.addresses;
--drop table dev.people;
CREATE TABLE [dev].[people](
[Id] [int] identity primary key,
name char(20)
)
GO
CREATE TABLE [dev].[Addresses](
id int identity primary key,
peopleId int foreign key references dev.people(id),
address varchar(100)
) ON [PRIMARY]
GO
CREATE TABLE [dev].[defaultAddress](
id int identity primary key,
peopleId int foreign key references dev.people(id),
addressesId int foreign key references dev.addresses(id))
go
create unique index defaultAddress on dev.defaultAddress (peopleId)
go
create unique index idx_addr_id_person on dev.addresses(peopleid,id);
go
ALTER TABLE dev.defaultAddress
ADD CONSTRAINT FK_Def_People_Address
FOREIGN KEY(peopleID, addressesID)
REFERENCES dev.Addresses(peopleId, id)
go
insert into dev.people (name)
select 'Bill' union
select 'John' union
select 'Harry'
insert into dev.Addresses (peopleid, address)
select 1, '123 someplace' union
select 1,'work place' union
select 2,'home address' union
select 3,'some address'
insert into dev.defaultaddress (peopleId, addressesid)
select 1,1 union
select 2,3
-- so two home addresses are default now
-- try adding another default address to Bill and you get an error
select * from dev.people
join dev.addresses on people.id = addresses.peopleid
left join dev.defaultAddress on defaultAddress.peopleid = people.id and defaultaddress.addressesid = addresses.id
insert into dev.defaultaddress (peopleId, addressesId)
select 1,2
GO
You could do it through an instead of trigger, or if you want it as a constraint create a constraint that references a function that checks for a row that has the default set to 1
EDIT oops, needs to be <=
Create table mytable(id1 int, defaultX bit not null default(0))
go
create Function dbo.fx_DefaultExists()
returns int as
Begin
Declare #Ret int
Set #ret = 0
Select #ret = count(1) from mytable
Where defaultX = 1
Return #ret
End
GO
Alter table mytable add
CONSTRAINT [CHK_DEFAULT_SET] CHECK
(([dbo].fx_DefaultExists()<=(1)))
GO
Insert into mytable (id1, defaultX) values (1,1)
Insert into mytable (id1, defaultX) values (2,1)
This is a fairly complex process that cannot be handled through a simple constraint.
We do this through a trigger. However before you write the trigger you need to be able to answer several things:
do we want to fail the insert if a default exists, change it to 0 instead of 1 or change the existing default to 0 and leave this one as 1?
what do we want to do if the default record is deleted and other non default records are still there? Do we make one the default, if so how do we determine which one?
You will also need to be very, very careful to make the trigger handle multiple row processing. For instance a client might decide that all of the records of a particular type should be the default. You wouldn't change a million records one at a time, so this trigger needs to be able to handle that. It also needs to handle that without looping or the use of a cursor (you really don't want the type of transaction discussed above to take hours locking up the table the whole time).
You also need a very extensive tesing scenario for this trigger before it goes live. You need to test:
adding a record with no default and it is the first record for that customer
adding a record with a default and it is the first record for that customer
adding a record with no default and it is the not the first record for that customer
adding a record with a default and it is the not the first record for that customer
Updating a record to have the default when no other record has it (assuming you don't require one record to always be set as the deafault)
Updating a record to remove the default
Deleting the record with the deafult
Deleting a record without the default
Performing a mass insert with multiple situations in the data including two records which both have isdefault set to 1 and all of the situations tested when running individual record inserts
Performing a mass update with multiple situations in the data including two records which both have isdefault set to 1 and all of the situations tested when running individual record updates
Performing a mass delete with multiple situations in the data including two records which both have isdefault set to 1 and all of the situations tested when running individual record deletes
#Andy Jones gave an answer above closest to mine, but bearing in mind the Rule of Three, I placed the logic directly in the stored proc that updates this table. This was my simple solution. If I need to update the table from elsewhere, I will move the logic to a trigger. The one default rule applies to each set of records specified by a FormID and a ConfigID:
ALTER proc [dbo].[cpForm_UpdateLinkedReport]
#reportLinkId int,
#defaultYN bit,
#linkName nvarchar(150)
as
if #defaultYN = 1
begin
declare #formId int, #configId int
select #formId = FormID, #configId = ConfigID from csReportLink where ReportLinkID = #reportLinkId
update csReportLink set DefaultYN = 0 where isnull(ConfigID, #configId) = #configId and FormID = #formId
end
update
csReportLink
set
DefaultYN = #defaultYN,
LinkName = #linkName
where
ReportLinkID = #reportLinkId