I am trying to update a column in one table to set its value to the count of records in another table. This produces the error:
Operation must use an updateable query.
Query:
UPDATE Tracking SET BatchCount = (Select Count(*) from Batch)
WHERE ReportingDate=Date();
It seems Access does not like the Select Count(*) from Batch sub-query. If I replace it with a literal value, it works fine.
Any suggestions to resolve this issue is much appreciated.
Unfortunately this is an inherent restriction of the JET database engine used by MS Access: no part of an update query may use aggregation, else the resulting recordset is not updateable.
There are a couple of workarounds:
You can use a domain aggregate function, such as DCount:
update tracking set batchcount = dcount("*", "Batch")
where reportingdate = date();
Alternatively, you can use a temporary table to store the result of the count, and then update the records using the value held in the table, e.g.
select count(*) as cnt into temptable from batch
update tracking, temptable set tracking.batchcount = temptable.cnt
where tracking.reportingdate = date();
Related
So perhaps the title is a little confusing. If you can suggest better wording for that please let me know and i'll update.
Here's the issue. I've got a table with many thousands of rows and i need to update a few thousand of those many to store latest email data.
For example:
OldEmail#1.com => NewEmail#1.com
OldEmail#2.com => NewEmail#2.com
I've got a list of old emails ('OldEmail#1.com','OldEmail#2.com') and a list of the new ('NewEmail#1.com','NewEmail#2.com'). The HOPE was was to sort of do it simply with something like
UPDATE Table
SET Email = ('NewEmail#1.com','NewEmail#2.com')
WHERE Email = ('OldEmail#1.com','OldEmail#2.com')
I hope that makes sense. Any questions just ask. Thanks!
You could use a case expression:
update mytable
set email = case email
when 'OldEmail#1.com' then 'NewEmail#1.com'
when 'OldEmail#2.com' then 'NewEmail#2.com'
end
where email in ('OldEmail#1.com','OldEmail#2.com')
Or better yet, if you have a large list of values, you might create a table to store them (like myref(old_email, new_email)) and join it in your update query, like so:
update t
set t.email = r.new_email
from mytable t
inner join myref r on r.old_email = t.email
The actual syntax for update/join does vary accross databases - the above SQL Server syntax.
With accuracy to the syntax in particular DBMS:
WITH cte AS (SELECT 'NewEmail#1.com' newvalue, 'OldEmail#1.com' oldvalue
UNION ALL
SELECT 'NewEmail#2.com', 'OldEmail#2.com')
UPDATE table
SET table.email = cte.newvalue
FROM cte
WHERE table.email = cte.oldvalue
or, if CTE is not available,
UPDATE table
SET table.email = cte.newvalue
FROM (SELECT 'NewEmail#1.com' newvalue, 'OldEmail#1.com' oldvalue
UNION ALL
SELECT 'NewEmail#2.com', 'OldEmail#2.com') cte
WHERE table.email = cte.oldvalue
Consider prepared statement for rows update in large batches.
Basically it works as following :
database complies a query pattern you provide the first time, keep the compiled result for current connection (depends on implementation).
then you updates all the rows, by sending shortened label of the prepared function with different parameters in SQL syntax, instead of sending entire UPDATE statement several times for several updates
the database parse the shortened label of the prepared function , which is linked to the pre-compiled result, then perform the updates.
next time when you perform row updates, the database may still use the pre-compiled result and quickly complete the operations (so the first step above can be skipped).
Here is PostgreSQL example of prepare statement, many of SQL databases (e.g. MariaDB,MySQL, Oracle) also support it.
UPDATE Tbl, Qry SET Tbl.Submit_Date = [Qry]![FirstOfTIMESTAMP]
WHERE (((Tbl.Info_ID)=[Qry]![INFO_ID]));
I want to update Tbl.Submit_Date with values from [Qry]![FirstOfTIMESTAMP] where both of their info_id are equal.
I get an error saying Operation must have an updateable query. I am using MSAccess. Any help is greatly appreciated.
As you learned, in MS Access queries must be updateable in order to be used in UPDATE queries. As a workaround consider converting your SQL aggregation to domain aggregation with DMin() assuming FirstOfTIMESTAMP is the Min() aggregation from a source table
UPDATE Tbl
SET Tbl.Submit_Date = DMin("TIMESTAMP","SrcTable","Info_ID=" & Tbl.[INFO_ID])
I am using APEX collections to store some values and pass them between pages in Oracle Application Express 4.2.3.
I would like to then perform an update statement on a table called "project" with the values from the collection.
My code so far is as follows:
update project
SET name=c.c002,
description=c.c007,
start_date=c.c004,
timeframe=c.c005,
status=c.c009
FROM
apex_collections c
WHERE
c.collection_name = 'PROJECT_DETAILS_COLLECTION'
and id = :p14_id;
where :p14_id is the value of a page item.
However, I am getting the following error:
ORA-00933: SQL command not properly ended
Anyone have any idea on how to approach this?
Thanks!
The UPDATE syntax you are using is not valid in Oracle; it does not allow you to use FROM in the way you are attempting.
The simplest way to do this in Oracle would with a subquery:
update project
set (name, description, start_date, timeframe, status) =
(select c.c002, c.c007, c.c004, c.c005, c.c009
FROM
apex_collections c
WHERE
c.collection_name = 'PROJECT_DETAILS_COLLECTION'
)
WHERE
id = :p14_id
;
Note that if the subquery returns no rows, the columns in the target table will be updated to NULL; this could be avoided by adding a similar EXISTS condition in the predicate for the update. It could also be avoided by using a MERGE statement instead of an UPDATE.
If the subquery returns multiple rows, the statement will throw an error. It looks like tthat should not be the case here.
I have a table with grouped tasks:
tt_plan_task_id is the id
records with tt_plantype=1 represent 'groups'
tasks in/under a group have a tt_group_id pointing to the tt_plan_task_id
there are tasks that don't belong to a group (tt_group_id is null)
groups nest multiple levels
I need to fix (update) the tt_fromdate field values for the group records if they do not match the min(tt_fromdate) from the underlying tasks (they always have a value).
To fix them all I could do
update tt_plan_task g
set tt_fromdate=
(select min(t.tt_fromdate) from tt_plan_task t
where (t.tt_group_id=g.tt_plan_task_id))
where (g.tt_plantype=1)
This statement avoids the UPDATE FROM syntax that I see in many (SQL server) answers - Firebird does not support that.
There are 2 complications
I want to do the update only if g.tt_fromdate <> min(t.tt_fromdate), so I would have to add a reference to min(tt_fromdate) to the outer where.
I tried using an alias for the aggregate and referencing that but that got me nowhere (syntax errors)
SQL Server does not like the table alias in the update, but solutions like these use the UPDATE FROM syntax again ;-( How do I work around that then?
How do I tie 1. and 2. into my update statement so that it works?
As noted in the title, this needs to execute in SQL Server, Oracle, and Firebird
Note: Since groups can contain groups, the update should ideally be executed 'from the bottom up', i.e. deepest groups first.
But since this is just a rough correction for a corrupt database, doing one 'lineair' pass over all groups is good enough.
To get around SQL Server's non-standard way for update table aliases, simply don't use any.
As to using the aggregate result in both the SET clause and the WHERE clause, I suppose the only way all DBMS work with, is to write the aggregation query twice.
update tt_plan_task
set tt_fromdate =
(
select min(t.tt_fromdate)
from tt_plan_task t
where t.tt_group_id = tt_plan_task.tt_plan_task_id
)
where (tt_plantype=1)
and
(
tt_fromdate <>
(
select min(t.tt_fromdate)
from tt_plan_task t
where t.tt_group_id = tt_plan_task.tt_plan_task_id
)
);
I want to write a update SQL statement, but one conidtion of this statement is the result from a select SQL statement, and I also want to return the result of the select SQL statement.
Like this: update ... set ... where id = (select id from ...)
I want to return the value of id back.
Does anybody know how should I do this?
Thanks in advance!
I don't believe that's possible in one statement. Update then query (select) the new value, or query the value first, and then submit an update.
Alternative would be a stored procedure on the database, which executes the multiple queries and returns the result for you.
This is not possible in all Java database frameworks that I know. Probably you need to separate your query and update in Java.
I don't see any problem in using a subselect in a WHERE clause of an update statement.
For the second request, getting back the value of id, I know this is possible in DB2, and maybe others implement that syntax too:
SELECT id FROM FINAL TABLE (
update ... set ... where id = (select id from ...)
)
This works also for INSERT and DELETE statements. (See the documentation.)
Update statements won't return the updated datasets. The select in that case would be a subselect that isn't directly accessible.
You'd thus have to use at least two queries:
select the ids you want
call the update query passing the previously selected ids as a parameter