I need to delete the first top 100 objects from a dm_document table.
I already tried:
DELETE dm_document objects where object_name='TestObject' enable (RETURN_TOP 100);
DELETE dm_document objects where r_object_id in (select r_object_id from dm_document where object_name='TestObject' enable (RETURN_TOP 100));
But both did not work. Do you have any tips/ideas?
Sadly it is not possible by one DQL query because hints are applied only for SELECT statements when used as a main statement and nor will the sub-select help.
You can solve it using DFC (in Java, Groovy or any language which can work with dfc.jar). Select 100 IDs, join them into one String and provide them into the DELETE statement as an IN clause where all ids will be listed explicitly:
DELETE dm_document OBJECT WHERE r_object_id IN ('0902e70480002d01', '0902e70480002d02', '0902e70480002d03', ...)
Related
It's not efficient to do two queries like SELECT * FROM TABLE WHERE clause and then DELETE * FROM TABLE WHERE clause.
So I want to make DELETE query and return deleted rows (one query).
I tried to do:
DELETE OUTPUT DELETED.*
FROM table
WHERE clause
But I have an error:
SQLite exception: near "OUTPUT": syntax error
How to make it correctly or maybe there is another alternative way to return deleted rows?
The DELETE statement has no OUTPUT clause.
After doing the SELECT, all the important data is in the cache, so the DELETE will run quickly.
And because SELECT plus DELETE is the only way, it is the most efficient way.
Since version 3.35, SQLite has the RETURNING clause.
You can return the records deleted with the returning clause
delete from myTable returning *
You can use the changes() call right after your DELETE query: https://www.sqlite.org/c3ref/changes.html
Implementation will vary depending on the language you're using. For example in PHP you could write:
$sqlite = new SQLite3('database.sqlite');
$statement = $sqlite->prepare('DELETE FROM mytable WHERE myclause');
$statement->execute();
echo $sqlite->changes();
I am using APEX collections to store some values and pass them between pages in Oracle Application Express 4.2.3.
I would like to then perform an update statement on a table called "project" with the values from the collection.
My code so far is as follows:
update project
SET name=c.c002,
description=c.c007,
start_date=c.c004,
timeframe=c.c005,
status=c.c009
FROM
apex_collections c
WHERE
c.collection_name = 'PROJECT_DETAILS_COLLECTION'
and id = :p14_id;
where :p14_id is the value of a page item.
However, I am getting the following error:
ORA-00933: SQL command not properly ended
Anyone have any idea on how to approach this?
Thanks!
The UPDATE syntax you are using is not valid in Oracle; it does not allow you to use FROM in the way you are attempting.
The simplest way to do this in Oracle would with a subquery:
update project
set (name, description, start_date, timeframe, status) =
(select c.c002, c.c007, c.c004, c.c005, c.c009
FROM
apex_collections c
WHERE
c.collection_name = 'PROJECT_DETAILS_COLLECTION'
)
WHERE
id = :p14_id
;
Note that if the subquery returns no rows, the columns in the target table will be updated to NULL; this could be avoided by adding a similar EXISTS condition in the predicate for the update. It could also be avoided by using a MERGE statement instead of an UPDATE.
If the subquery returns multiple rows, the statement will throw an error. It looks like tthat should not be the case here.
I have a table with grouped tasks:
tt_plan_task_id is the id
records with tt_plantype=1 represent 'groups'
tasks in/under a group have a tt_group_id pointing to the tt_plan_task_id
there are tasks that don't belong to a group (tt_group_id is null)
groups nest multiple levels
I need to fix (update) the tt_fromdate field values for the group records if they do not match the min(tt_fromdate) from the underlying tasks (they always have a value).
To fix them all I could do
update tt_plan_task g
set tt_fromdate=
(select min(t.tt_fromdate) from tt_plan_task t
where (t.tt_group_id=g.tt_plan_task_id))
where (g.tt_plantype=1)
This statement avoids the UPDATE FROM syntax that I see in many (SQL server) answers - Firebird does not support that.
There are 2 complications
I want to do the update only if g.tt_fromdate <> min(t.tt_fromdate), so I would have to add a reference to min(tt_fromdate) to the outer where.
I tried using an alias for the aggregate and referencing that but that got me nowhere (syntax errors)
SQL Server does not like the table alias in the update, but solutions like these use the UPDATE FROM syntax again ;-( How do I work around that then?
How do I tie 1. and 2. into my update statement so that it works?
As noted in the title, this needs to execute in SQL Server, Oracle, and Firebird
Note: Since groups can contain groups, the update should ideally be executed 'from the bottom up', i.e. deepest groups first.
But since this is just a rough correction for a corrupt database, doing one 'lineair' pass over all groups is good enough.
To get around SQL Server's non-standard way for update table aliases, simply don't use any.
As to using the aggregate result in both the SET clause and the WHERE clause, I suppose the only way all DBMS work with, is to write the aggregation query twice.
update tt_plan_task
set tt_fromdate =
(
select min(t.tt_fromdate)
from tt_plan_task t
where t.tt_group_id = tt_plan_task.tt_plan_task_id
)
where (tt_plantype=1)
and
(
tt_fromdate <>
(
select min(t.tt_fromdate)
from tt_plan_task t
where t.tt_group_id = tt_plan_task.tt_plan_task_id
)
);
Is there any possibility to write delete query inside Where clause.
Example:
Select ID,Name From MyTable Where ID IN(Delete From MyTable)
It may be crazy, but let me explain my situation. In our reporting tool, we are supporting to enter SQL where query.
We will use our own Select and From Clause query and combine the user's where query input.
Example:
Select ID,Name From MyTable Where ("Query typed by user")
Here, user can type any kind of where query filter..
If he types like ID=100 our final query becomes like this
Select ID,Name From MyTable Where (ID=100)
One of our customer asked us what will happen if anyone type the delete query as where query filter. he feels this may be the security hole..so we have tried that kind of possibility in our dev environment. But the sql returns error for the following query.
Select ID,Name From MyTable Where ID IN(Delete From MyTable)
So finally, my question is, is there any other possibility to write Delete Query inside Where clause or Select clause.. If it possible, how can I restrict it?
Yes. They can run a delete. They can type:
1 = 1; DELETE FROM MY_TABLE;
Or even worse in some ways, (since you should have backups):
1 = 0 UNION SELECT SOCIAL_SECURITY_NUMBER, CREDIT_CARD_NUMBER, OTHER_SENSITIVE_DATA FROM MY_SENSITIVE_TABLE;
Now, in your case its hard to validate. Normally if you are just passing a value to filter on you can use parameterised sql to save yourself. You however also need to let the user select a column. In cases like these, usually we use a drop down to allow the user to select a predefined list of columns and then validate the column name server side. We give the user a text box to enter the value to match and then parameterise that.
It's not quite possible. But he can do something like this :
Select ID,Name From MyTable Where (ID=100); (DELETE FROM MyTable Where 1 = 1)
by using ID=100); (DELETE FROM MyTable Where 1 = 1 instead of ID=100
I believe what your customer is talking about is SQL injection, as long as you have taken appropriate methods to block other queries from running after your select statement is done, then you should have no problem in letting them type whatever it is that you want.
From my experience there is no way to delete anything when you are doing a select statement.
Just make sure you have query terminator characters so they don't write something like the following.
select column1,column2, from myTable where ID in (1,2); delete from my table
this would be a valid worry from your customer if you aren't taking proper steps to prevent sql injection from happening.
You could have your SQL reporting tool just not have update, or delete permission and just have it have Read permission. However, it is up to you guys have you handle your sql injection security.
I have written this query:
UPDATE tbl_stock1 SET
tbl_stock1.weight1 = (
select (b.weight1 - c.weight_in_gram) as temp
from
tbl_stock1 as b,
tbl_sales_item as c
where
b.item_submodel_id = c.item_submodel_id
and b.item_submodel_id = tbl_stock1.item_submodel_id
and b.status <> 'D'
and c.status <> 'D'
),
tbl_stock1.qty1 = (
select (b.qty1 - c.qty) as temp1
from
tbl_stock1 as b,
tbl_sales_item as c
where
b.item_submodel_id = c.item_submodel_id
and b.item_submodel_id = tbl_stock1.item_submodel_id
and b.status <> 'D'
and c.status <> 'D'
)
WHERE
tbl_stock1.item_submodel_id = 'ISUBM/1'
and tbl_stock1.status <> 'D';
I got this error message:
Operation must use an updatable query. (Error 3073) Microsoft Access
But if I run the same query in SQL Server it will be executed.
Thanks,
dinesh
I'm quite sure the JET DB Engine treats any query with a subquery as non-updateable. This is most likely the reason for the error and, thus, you'll need to rework the logic and avoid the subqueries.
As a test, you might also try to remove the calculation (the subtraction) being performed in each of the two subqueries. This calculation may not be playing nicely with the update as well.
Consider this very simple UPDATE statement using Northwind:
UPDATE Categories
SET Description = (
SELECT DISTINCT 'Anything'
FROM Employees
);
It fails with the error 'Operation must use an updateable query'.
The Access database engine simple does not support the SQL-92 syntax using a scalar subquery in the SET clause.
The Access database engine has its own proprietary UPDATE..JOIN..SET syntax but is unsafe because, unlike a scalar subquery, it doesn’t require values to be unambiguous. If values are ambiguous then the engine silent 'picks' one arbitrarily and it is hard (if not impossible) to predict which one will be applied even if you were aware of the problem.
For example, consider the existing Categories table in Northwind and the following daft (non-)table as a target for an update (daft but simple to demonstrate the problem clearly):
CREATE TABLE BadCategories
(
CategoryID INTEGER NOT NULL,
CategoryName NVARCHAR(15) NOT NULL
)
;
INSERT INTO BadCategories (CategoryID, CategoryName)
VALUES (1, 'This one...?')
;
INSERT INTO BadCategories (CategoryID, CategoryName)
VALUES (1, '...or this one?')
;
Now for the UPDATE:
UPDATE Categories
INNER JOIN (
SELECT T1.CategoryID, T1.CategoryName
FROM Categories AS T1
UNION ALL
SELECT 9 - T2.CategoryID, T2.CategoryName
FROM Categories AS T2
) AS DT1
ON DT1.CategoryID = Categories.CategoryID
SET Categories.CategoryName = DT1.CategoryName;
When I run this I'm told that two rows have been updated, funny because there's only one matching row in the Categories table. The result is that the Categories table with CategoryID now has the '...or this one?' value. I suspect it has been a race to see which value gets written to the table last.
The SQL-92 scalar subquery is verbose when there are multiple clauses in the SET and/or the WHERE clause matches the SET's clauses but at least it eliminates ambiguity (plus a decent optimizer should be able to detects that the subqueries are close matches). The SQL-99 Standard introduced MERGE which can be used to eliminate the aforementioned repetition but needless to say Access doesn't support that either.
The Access database engine's lack of support for the SQL-92 scalar subquery syntax is for me its worst 'design feature' (read 'bug').
Also note the Access database engine's proprietary UPDATE..JOIN..SET syntax cannot anyhow be used with set functions ('totals queries' in Access-speak). See Update Query Based on Totals Query Fails.
Keep in mind that if you copy over a query that originally had queries or summary queries as part of the query, even though you delete those queries and only have linked tables, the query will (mistakenly) act like it still has non-updateable fields and will give you this error. You just simply re-create the query as you want it but it is an insidious little glitch.
You are updating weight1 and qty1 with values that are in turn derived from weight1 and qty1 (respectively). That's why MS-Access is choking on the update. It's probably also doing some optimisation in the background.
The way I would get around this is to dump the calculations into a temporary table, and then update the first table from the temporary table.
There is no error in the code. But the error is Thrown because of the following reason.
Please check weather you have given Read-write permission to MS-Access database file.
The Database file where it is stored (say in Folder1) is read-only..?
suppose you are stored the database (MS-Access file) in read only folder, while running your application the connection is not force-fully opened. Hence change the file permission / its containing folder permission like in C:\Program files all most all c drive files been set read-only so changing this permission solves this Problem.
In the query properties, try changing the Recordset Type to Dynaset (Inconsistent Updates)