I need to get the definition of a stored procedure, from another different server. When I want to see the definition locally, I can do something like:
SELECT TOP 1 *
FROM sysobjects
WHERE name = 'procedure_name'
When I want to see how this same stored procedure is currently, I tried to do this, since it's on a linked server:
SELECT TOP 1 *
FROM [xxx.xx.xxx.xx].DBName.dbo.sysobjects
WHERE name = 'procedure_name'
It runs okay, no error, but I get the definition of my local procedure, not the one on the remote server. Is there a way to do this? I couldn't seem to find any information about this case.
You might try:
EXECUTE
(
'
SELECT
OBJECT_DEFINITION(
OBJECT_ID(N''dbo.ProcName'', ''P''))
'
) AT [LinkedServer]
I have three stored procedures Sp1, Sp2 and Sp3.
The first one (Sp1) will execute the second one (Sp2) and save returned data into #tempTB1 and the second one will execute the third one (Sp3) and save data into #tempTB2.
If I execute the Sp2 it will work and it will return me all my data from the Sp3, but the problem is in the Sp1, when I execute it it will display this error:
INSERT EXEC statement cannot be nested
I tried to change the place of execute Sp2 and it display me another error:
Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement
within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
This is a common issue when attempting to 'bubble' up data from a chain of stored procedures. A restriction in SQL Server is you can only have one INSERT-EXEC active at a time. I recommend looking at How to Share Data Between Stored Procedures which is a very thorough article on patterns to work around this type of problem.
For example a work around could be to turn Sp3 into a Table-valued function.
This is the only "simple" way to do this in SQL Server without some giant convoluted created function or executed sql string call, both of which are terrible solutions:
create a temp table
openrowset your stored procedure data into it
EXAMPLE:
INSERT INTO #YOUR_TEMP_TABLE
SELECT * FROM OPENROWSET ('SQLOLEDB','Server=(local);TRUSTED_CONNECTION=YES;','set fmtonly off EXEC [ServerName].dbo.[StoredProcedureName] 1,2,3')
Note: You MUST use 'set fmtonly off', AND you CANNOT add dynamic sql to this either inside the openrowset call, either for the string containing your stored procedure parameters or for the table name. Thats why you have to use a temp table rather than table variables, which would have been better, as it out performs temp table in most cases.
OK, encouraged by jimhark here is an example of the old single hash table approach: -
CREATE PROCEDURE SP3 as
BEGIN
SELECT 1, 'Data1'
UNION ALL
SELECT 2, 'Data2'
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP2 as
BEGIN
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP3
else
EXEC SP3
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP1 as
BEGIN
EXEC SP2
END
GO
/*
--I want some data back from SP3
-- Just run the SP1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--Try run this - get an error - can't nest Execs
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--However, if we run this single hash temp table it is in scope anyway so
--no need for the exec insert
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
EXEC SP1
SELECT * FROM #tmp1
*/
My work around for this problem has always been to use the principle that single hash temp tables are in scope to any called procs. So, I have an option switch in the proc parameters (default set to off). If this is switched on, the called proc will insert the results into the temp table created in the calling proc. I think in the past I have taken it a step further and put some code in the called proc to check if the single hash table exists in scope, if it does then insert the code, otherwise return the result set. Seems to work well - best way of passing large data sets between procs.
This trick works for me.
You don't have this problem on remote server, because on remote server, the last insert command waits for the result of previous command to execute. It's not the case on same server.
Profit that situation for a workaround.
If you have the right permission to create a Linked Server, do it.
Create the same server as linked server.
in SSMS, log into your server
go to "Server Object
Right Click on "Linked Servers", then "New Linked Server"
on the dialog, give any name of your linked server : eg: THISSERVER
server type is "Other data source"
Provider : Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL server
Data source: your IP, it can be also just a dot (.), because it's localhost
Go to the tab "Security" and choose the 3rd one "Be made using the login's current security context"
You can edit the server options (3rd tab) if you want
Press OK, your linked server is created
now your Sql command in the SP1 is
insert into #myTempTable
exec THISSERVER.MY_DATABASE_NAME.MY_SCHEMA.SP2
Believe me, it works even you have dynamic insert in SP2
I found a work around is to convert one of the prods into a table valued function. I realize that is not always possible, and introduces its own limitations. However, I have been able to always find at least one of the procedures a good candidate for this. I like this solution, because it doesn't introduce any "hacks" to the solution.
I encountered this issue when trying to import the results of a Stored Proc into a temp table, and that Stored Proc inserted into a temp table as part of its own operation. The issue being that SQL Server does not allow the same process to write to two different temp tables at the same time.
The accepted OPENROWSET answer works fine, but I needed to avoid using any Dynamic SQL or an external OLE provider in my process, so I went a different route.
One easy workaround I found was to change the temporary table in my stored procedure to a table variable. It works exactly the same as it did with a temp table, but no longer conflicts with my other temp table insert.
Just to head off the comment I know that a few of you are about to write, warning me off Table Variables as performance killers... All I can say to you is that in 2020 it pays dividends not to be afraid of Table Variables. If this was 2008 and my Database was hosted on a server with 16GB RAM and running off 5400RPM HDDs, I might agree with you. But it's 2020 and I have an SSD array as my primary storage and hundreds of gigs of RAM. I could load my entire company's database to a table variable and still have plenty of RAM to spare.
Table Variables are back on the menu!
I recommend to read this entire article. Below is the most relevant section of that article that addresses your question:
Rollback and Error Handling is Difficult
In my articles on Error and Transaction Handling in SQL Server, I suggest that you should always have an error handler like
BEGIN CATCH
IF ##trancount > 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION
EXEC error_handler_sp
RETURN 55555
END CATCH
The idea is that even if you do not start a transaction in the procedure, you should always include a ROLLBACK, because if you were not able to fulfil your contract, the transaction is not valid.
Unfortunately, this does not work well with INSERT-EXEC. If the called procedure executes a ROLLBACK statement, this happens:
Msg 3915, Level 16, State 0, Procedure SalesByStore, Line 9 Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
The execution of the stored procedure is aborted. If there is no CATCH handler anywhere, the entire batch is aborted, and the transaction is rolled back. If the INSERT-EXEC is inside TRY-CATCH, that CATCH handler will fire, but the transaction is doomed, that is, you must roll it back. The net effect is that the rollback is achieved as requested, but the original error message that triggered the rollback is lost. That may seem like a small thing, but it makes troubleshooting much more difficult, because when you see this error, all you know is that something went wrong, but you don't know what.
I had the same issue and concern over duplicate code in two or more sprocs. I ended up adding an additional attribute for "mode". This allowed common code to exist inside one sproc and the mode directed flow and result set of the sproc.
what about just store the output to the static table ? Like
-- SubProcedure: subProcedureName
---------------------------------
-- Save the value
DELETE lastValue_subProcedureName
INSERT INTO lastValue_subProcedureName (Value)
SELECT #Value
-- Return the value
SELECT #Value
-- Procedure
--------------------------------------------
-- get last value of subProcedureName
SELECT Value FROM lastValue_subProcedureName
its not ideal, but its so simple and you don't need to rewrite everything.
UPDATE:
the previous solution does not work well with parallel queries (async and multiuser accessing) therefore now Iam using temp tables
-- A local temporary table created in a stored procedure is dropped automatically when the stored procedure is finished.
-- The table can be referenced by any nested stored procedures executed by the stored procedure that created the table.
-- The table cannot be referenced by the process that called the stored procedure that created the table.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NULL
CREATE TABLE #lastValue_spGetData (Value INT)
-- trigger stored procedure with special silent parameter
EXEC dbo.spGetData 1 --silent mode parameter
nested spGetData stored procedure content
-- Save the output if temporary table exists.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NOT NULL
BEGIN
DELETE #lastValue_spGetData
INSERT INTO #lastValue_spGetData(Value)
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
END
-- stored procedure return
IF #silentMode = 0
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
Declare an output cursor variable to the inner sp :
#c CURSOR VARYING OUTPUT
Then declare a cursor c to the select you want to return.
Then open the cursor.
Then set the reference:
DECLARE c CURSOR LOCAL FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR
SELECT ...
OPEN c
SET #c = c
DO NOT close or reallocate.
Now call the inner sp from the outer one supplying a cursor parameter like:
exec sp_abc a,b,c,, #cOUT OUTPUT
Once the inner sp executes, your #cOUT is ready to fetch. Loop and then close and deallocate.
If you are able to use other associated technologies such as C#, I suggest using the built in SQL command with Transaction parameter.
var sqlCommand = new SqlCommand(commandText, null, transaction);
I've created a simple Console App that demonstrates this ability which can be found here:
https://github.com/hecked12/SQL-Transaction-Using-C-Sharp
In short, C# allows you to overcome this limitation where you can inspect the output of each stored procedure and use that output however you like, for example you can feed it to another stored procedure. If the output is ok, you can commit the transaction, otherwise, you can revert the changes using rollback.
On SQL Server 2008 R2, I had a mismatch in table columns that caused the Rollback error. It went away when I fixed my sqlcmd table variable populated by the insert-exec statement to match that returned by the stored proc. It was missing org_code. In a windows cmd file, it loads result of stored procedure and selects it.
set SQLTXT= declare #resets as table (org_id nvarchar(9), org_code char(4), ^
tin(char9), old_strt_dt char(10), strt_dt char(10)); ^
insert #resets exec rsp_reset; ^
select * from #resets;
sqlcmd -U user -P pass -d database -S server -Q "%SQLTXT%" -o "OrgReport.txt"
I have a lump of SQL that looks a little like this
IF NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.databases WHERE name = '{FOO}')
BEGIN
EXECUTE ('CREATE DATABASE {FOO}')
ALTER DATABASE {FOO} SET AUTO_CLOSE OFF
END
{FOO} is replaced at runtime with the name of a user configurable database. The logic is that I don't want to create the database if it already exists.
If {FOO} is tempdb then I get a failure when the query runs
Option 'AUTO_CLOSE' cannot be set in database 'tempdb'.
My question is why do I get this failure? SELECT * FROM sys.databases WHERE name = 'tempdb' returns zero results so surely my whole BEGIN/END pair shouldn't run? Indeed, if I put a print statement between begin and end, I don't see any output.
My guess is that SQL Server is doing some kind of linting on the SQL to make sure I don't muck around with tempdb? I have solved the problem by using EXECUTE instead, but I'm a little confused why I have to!
Try ensuring both commands are separate and within dynamic SQL, then the change to tempdb won't be caught by the parser:
EXEC sp_executesql N'CREATE DATABASE {FOO};';
EXEC sp_executesql N'ALTER DATABASE {FOO} SET AUTO_CLOSE OFF;';
This is similar to the reason you can't do this:
IF 1 = 1
BEGIN
CREATE TABLE #t1(id INT);
END
ELSE
BEGIN
CREATE TABLE #t1(x NVARCHAR(255));
END
Even though you and I know that only one of those #t1 code paths will ever be reached, SQL Server presumes that both paths could be reached at runtime, and so complains at parse time.
SQL Server 2005, Win7, VS2008. I have to upgrade database from the old version of product to the newer one. I'd like to have one script that creates new database and upgrades old database to the new state. I am trying to do the following (SQL script below) and get the error (when running on machine with no database ):
Database 'MyDatabase' does not exist. Make sure that the name is
entered correctly.
The question is:
How can I specify database name in upgrade part
Is the better way to write create/upgrade exists ?
SQL code:
USE [master]
-- DB upgrade part
if exists (select name from sysdatabases where name = 'MyDatabase')
BEGIN
IF (<Some checks that DB is new>)
BEGIN
raiserror('MyDatabase database already exists and no upgrade required', 20, -1) with log
END
ELSE
BEGIN
USE [MyDatabase]
-- create some new tables
-- alter existing tables
raiserror('MyDatabase database upgraded successfully', 20, -1) with log
END
END
-- DB creating part
CREATE DATABASE [MyDatabase];
-- create new tables
You don't usually want to explicitly specify database name in a script. Rather, supply it exernally or pre-process the SQL to replace a $$DATABASENAME$$ token with the name of an actual database.
You're not going to be able to include the USE [MyDatabase] in your script since, if the database doesn't exist, the query won't parse.
Instead, what you can do is keep 2 separate scripts, one for an upgrade and one for a new database. Then you can call the scripts within the IF branches through xp_cmdshell and dynamic SQL. The following link has some examples that you can follow:
http://abhijitmore.wordpress.com/2011/06/21/how-to-execute-sql-using-t-sql/
PowerShell may make this task easier as well, but I don't have any direct experience using it.
This is pretty weird.
I have my Profiler open and it obviously shows that a stored procedure is called. I open the database and the SP list, but the SP doesn't exist. However, there's another SP whose name is the same except it has a prefix 'x'
Is SQL Server 2005 mapping the SP name to a different one for security purposes?
EDIT: I found out it's a Synonym, whatever that is.
In general, when you know an object exists because it's been used in a query, and you can't find it in the object tree in Management Studio, you can do this to find it.
select *
from sys.objects
where name = 'THE_NAME_YOU_WANT'
I just checked, and it works with Synonyms.
Possibly silly questions, but just in case... have you refreshed the SP list? Have you checked for a stored procedure of that name under a different owner? If you created the stored procedure without specifying the owner then it could be in the list under your ownership (or not at all if the list is filtered to only "dbo" for example).
You may not have permission to see all the objects in the database
Adding to the previous answers, it could also be under "System Stored Procedures", and if the name of the stored procedure begins with "sp_", it could also be in the master database.
The stored procedure will be inside the database you have selected at time of stored procedure creation. So search inside the database from which it is extracting data, otherwise it will be inside the master database. If still you are not able to find then first number solution is best one. i.e.
select * from sys.objects where name = 'name of stored procedure'