I have a tricky update to make. Any help is highly appreciated. Thanks in advance for your help.
Here is the scenario as shown on the image attached. I have to update P_main.ver_key from Versions.verkey where P_main.ver_key is null. The logic is to get the ver_key for that pid where Versions.pcmm <= max(P_main.vdmm). The values that should be populated in the null spots are shown in the 'after update' column on the image.
Example:
P_main table:
pid = 50000178
vcmm = 2014027001
Versions table:
pid = 50000178
max pdmm <=2014027001 is 2014032000
therefore
update ver_key = 154
This might not be the fastest way, but it should work:
WITH CTE AS
(
SELECT P.*, Q.ver_key ver_key_new
FROM P_Main P
CROSS APPLY(SELECT TOP 1 ver_key
FROM Versions
WHERE pid = P.pid
AND vdmm <= P.vcmm
ORDER BY vdmm DESC) Q
WHERE P.ver_key IS NULL
)
UPDATE CTE
SET ver_key = ver_key_new;
Related
I have the following query returning the data as shown below. But I need to exclude the rows with MODIFIEDDATETIME shown in red as they have a lower time stamp by COMMITRECID. As depicted in the data, there may be multiple rows with the max time stamp by COMMITRECID.
SELECT REQCOMMIT.COMMITSTATUS, NOTEHISTORY.NOTE, NOTEHISTORY.MODIFIEDDATETIME, NOTEHISTORY.COMMITRECID
FROM REQCOMMIT INNER JOIN NOTEHISTORY ON REQCOMMIT.RECID = NOTEHISTORY.COMMITRECID
WHERE REQCOMMIT.PORECID = 1234
Here is the result of the above query
The desired result is only 8 rows with 5 in Green and 3 in Black (6 in Red should get eliminated).
Thank you very much for your help :)
Use RANK:
WITH CTE AS
(
SELECT R.COMMITSTATUS,
N.NOTE,
N.MODIFIEDDATETIME,
N.COMMITRECID,
RN = RANK() OVER(PARTITION BY N.COMMITRECID ORDER BY N.MODIFIEDDATETIME)
FROM REQCOMMIT R
INNER JOIN NOTEHISTORY N
ON R.RECID = N.COMMITRECID
WHERE R.PORECID = 1234
)
SELECT *
FROM CTE
WHERE RN = 1;
As an aside, please try to use tabla aliases instead of the whole table name in your queries.
*Disclaimer: You said that you wanted the max date, but the selected values in your post were those with the min date, so I used that criteria in my answer
This method just limits your history table to those with the MINdate as you described.
SELECT
REQCOMMIT.COMMITSTATUS,
NOTEHISTORY.NOTE,
NOTEHISTORY.MODIFIEDDATETIME,
NOTEHISTORY.COMMITRECID
FROM REQCOMMIT
INNER JOIN NOTEHISTORY ON REQCOMMIT.RECID = NOTEHISTORY.COMMITRECID
INNER JOIN (SELECT COMMITRECID, MIN(MODIFIEDDATETIME) DT FROM NOTEHISTORY GROUP BY COMMITRECID) a on a.COMMITRECID = NOTEHISTORY.COMMITRECID and a.DT = NOTEHISTORY.MODIFIEDDATETIME
WHERE REQCOMMIT.PORECID = 1234
I have a table as below:
As You see, the column officebudge updated with value for all individual offices. i want the update happen only top 1 office
like below:
any suggesion to update the top 1 record?
I used below code. but it updates all the office entries:
UPDATE budget
SET officebudge = ISNULL(ProjectedReturnCount,0)
FROM analyticsdata
join
(
select ofc.officeid,ofc.week,
max(ISNULL(ofc.ProjectedReturnCount,0)) ProjectedReturnCount
from
BudgetOffice ofc
INNER JOIN budget anal
on ofc.OfficeID = anal.OfficeID
and ofc.Week = anal.week
and ofc.RowStatus = 'a'
group by ofc.OfficeID,ofc.week
)z
on (z.officeid = budget.OfficeID
and z.Week = budget .week )
thanks for the help. I have attached a sql fiddle to demonstrate this.
http://sqlfiddle.com/#!3/a2b32/7
You can use CTE like this (I have used only few of your provided columns)
;With cte As
(Select *, Row_Number() Over(Partition By OfficeID order by RowID) As rn
From Employee)
update cte set OfficeBudge = 0 where rn>1
select * from Employee
Find the attached fiddle
sql fiddle demo
You can achieve that you want using cte (Common Table Expression)
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms186734.aspx
Take a look at item B of the link above.
I m having the data like this...
with cte as
(select *, rn = row_number() over (partition by empid order by trtime)
from [10.xx.xx.xx].[dbName].dbo.[tableName] where empid='00ec2137' and trdate='01/13/2014'
)
select i.empid,i.trdate, i.trtime InTime, o.trtime OutTime
from cte i
inner join cte o on i.empid = o.empid
and i.rn = o.rn - 1
where i.InOUt = 1
and o.InOUt = 2
order by i.empid,i.rn
InOut 1 - "In timing" and 2 - "out timing". I want the data to be ordered like In Timing and Out Timing in a separate column. I m using the above query in SQL 2012 to display the data like below
Getting Output
Expected Output
In the output it displayed the first two rows only. As there is no Out timing 2 in third row, third row is not displayed. Please suggest me how to correct the code.
simple I got this by modifying the inner join into left join and removed o.InOUt = 2 in where condtion
I think the problem is with the where clause. Try this where clause instead:
where (i.InOUt = 1)
and (o.InOUt = 2 or o.InOUt is null)
this will bring when the user has logged out or still logged in.
I am trying to do the following update in Oracle 10gR2:
update
(select voyage_port_id, voyage_id, arrival_date, port_seq,
row_number() over (partition by voyage_id order by arrival_date) as new_seq
from voyage_port) t
set t.port_seq = t.new_seq
Voyage_port_id is the primary key, voyage_id is a foreign key. I'm trying to assign a sequence number based on the dates within each voyage.
However, the above fails with ORA-01732: data manipulation operation not legal on this view
What is the problem and how can I avoid it ?
Since you can't update subqueries with row_number, you'll have to calculate the row number in the set part of the update. At first I tried this:
update voyage_port a
set a.port_seq = (
select
row_number() over (partition by voyage_id order by arrival_date)
from voyage_port b
where b.voyage_port_id = a.voyage_port_id
)
But that doesn't work, because the subquery only selects one row, and then the row_number() is always 1. Using another subquery allows a meaningful result:
update voyage_port a
set a.port_seq = (
select c.rn
from (
select
voyage_port_id
, row_number() over (partition by voyage_id
order by arrival_date) as rn
from voyage_port b
) c
where c.voyage_port_id = a.voyage_port_id
)
It works, but more complex than I'd expect for this task.
You can update some views, but there are restrictions and one is that the view must not contain analytic functions. See SQL Language Reference on UPDATE and search for first occurence of "analytic".
This will work, provided no voyage visits more than one port on the same day (or the dates include a time component that makes them unique):
update voyage_port vp
set vp.port_seq =
( select count(*)
from voyage_port vp2
where vp2.voyage_id = vp.voyage_id
and vp2.arrival_date <= vp.arrival_date
)
I think this handles the case where a voyage visits more than 1 port per day and there is no time component (though the sequence of ports visited on the same day is then arbitrary):
update voyage_port vp
set vp.port_seq =
( select count(*)
from voyage_port vp2
where vp2.voyage_id = vp.voyage_id
and (vp2.arrival_date <= vp.arrival_date)
or ( vp2.arrival_date = vp.arrival_date
and vp2.voyage_port_id <= vp.voyage_port_id
)
)
Don't think you can update a derived table, I'd rewrite as:
update voyage_port
set port_seq = t.new_seq
from
voyage_port p
inner join
(select voyage_port_id, voyage_id, arrival_date, port_seq,
row_number() over (partition by voyage_id order by arrival_date) as new_seq
from voyage_port) t
on p.voyage_port_id = t.voyage_port_id
The first token after the UPDATE should be the name of the table to update, then your columns-to-update. I'm not sure what you are trying to achieve with the select statement where it is, but you can' update the result set from the select legally.
A version of the sql, guessing what you have in mind, might look like...
update voyage_port t
set t.port_seq = (<select statement that generates new value of port_seq>)
NOTE: to use a select statement to set a value like this you must make sure only 1 row will be returned from the select !
EDIT : modified statement above to reflect what I was trying to explain. The question has been answered very nicely by Andomar above
SpousesTable
SpouseID
SpousePreviousAddressesTable
PreviousAddressID, SpouseID, FromDate, AddressTypeID
What I have now is updating the most recent for the whole table and assigning the most recent regardless of SpouseID the AddressTypeID = 1
I want to assign the most recent SpousePreviousAddress.AddressTypeID = 1
for each unique SpouseID in the SpousePreviousAddresses table.
UPDATE spa
SET spa.AddressTypeID = 1
FROM SpousePreviousAddresses AS spa INNER JOIN Spouses ON spa.SpouseID = Spouses.SpouseID,
(SELECT TOP 1 SpousePreviousAddresses.* FROM SpousePreviousAddresses
INNER JOIN Spouses AS s ON SpousePreviousAddresses.SpouseID = s.SpouseID
WHERE SpousePreviousAddresses.CountryID = 181 ORDER BY SpousePreviousAddresses.FromDate DESC) as us
WHERE spa.PreviousAddressID = us.PreviousAddressID
I think I need a group by but my sql isn't all that hot. Thanks.
Update that is Working
I was wrong about having found a solution to this earlier. Below is the solution I am going with
WITH result AS
(
SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY SpouseID ORDER BY FromDate DESC) AS rowNumber, *
FROM SpousePreviousAddresses
WHERE CountryID = 181
)
UPDATE result
SET AddressTypeID = 1
FROM result WHERE rowNumber = 1
Presuming you are using SQLServer 2005 (based on the error message you got from the previous attempt) probably the most straightforward way to do this would be to use the ROW_NUMBER() Function couple with a Common Table Expression, I think this might do what you are looking for:
WITH result AS
(
SELECT
ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY SpouseID ORDER BY FromDate DESC) as rowNumber,
*
FROM
SpousePreviousAddresses
)
UPDATE SpousePreviousAddresses
SET
AddressTypeID = 2
FROM
SpousePreviousAddresses spa
INNER JOIN result r ON spa.SpouseId = r.SpouseId
WHERE r.rowNumber = 1
AND spa.PreviousAddressID = r.PreviousAddressID
AND spa.CountryID = 181
In SQLServer2005 the ROW_NUMBER() function is one of the most powerful around. It is very usefull in lots of situations. The time spent learning about it will be re-paid many times over.
The CTE is used to simplyfy the code abit, as it removes the need for a temporary table of some kind to store the itermediate result.
The resulting query should be fast and efficient. I know the select in the CTE uses *, which is a bit of overkill as we dont need all the columns, but it may help to show what is happening if anyone want to see what is happening inside the query.
Here's one way to do it:
UPDATE spa1
SET spa1.AddressTypeID = 1
FROM SpousePreviousAddresses AS spa1
LEFT OUTER JOIN SpousePreviousAddresses AS spa2
ON (spa1.SpouseID = spa2.SpouseID AND spa1.FromDate < spa2.FromDate)
WHERE spa1.CountryID = 181 AND spa2.SpouseID IS NULL;
In other words, update the row spa1 for which no other row spa2 exists with the same spouse and a greater (more recent) date.
There's exactly one row for each value of SpouseID that has the greatest date compared to all other rows (if any) with the same SpouseID.
There's no need to use a GROUP BY, because there's kind of an implicit grouping done by the join.
update: I think you misunderstand the purpose of the OUTER JOIN. If there is no row spa2 that matches all the join conditions, then all columns of spa2.* are returned as NULL. That's how outer joins work. So you can search for the cases where spa1 has no matching row spa2 by testing that spa2.SpouseID IS NULL.
UPDATE spa SET spa.AddressTypeID = 1
WHERE spa.SpouseID IN (
SELECT DISTINCT s1.SpouseID FROM Spa S1, SpousePreviousAddresses S2
WHERE s1.SpouseID = s2.SpouseID
AND s2.CountryID = 181
AND s1.PreviousAddressId = s2.PreviousAddressId
ORDER BY S2.FromDate DESC)
Just a guess.