I'm trying to copy a record from TableA back to TableA, but using a new Identity.
I don't want to specify column list as I have over 100 columns, and there may be more in the future. Id like a chunk of code that can run when/if things change.
After looking similar questions, I have attempted this code
SELECT * INTO #tmp FROM TableA WHERE Id = 1;
ALTER TABLE #tmp DROP COLUMN Id;
INSERT INTO TableA SELECT * FROM #tmp;
Drop Table #tmp;
I am however still getting this error
An explicit value for the identity column in table 'dbo.TableA' can only be specified when a column list is used and IDENTITY_INSERT is ON.
Running a Select * FROM #tmp gives me what I would expect. A single record with all my Columns with the exception of the Id column.
Any Ideas?
Thanks!
EDIT
Here is a pictures of the properties of the Id Column
Use Dynamic SQL: get your list of columns (except ID), build an insert statement using that list, and then call exec on it:
SELECT *
INTO #tmp
FROM TableA
WHERE Id = 1;
ALTER TABLE #tmp DROP COLUMN id;
DECLARE #cols varchar(max);
SELECT
#cols = COALESCE(#cols + ',', '') + COLUMN_NAME
FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS
WHERE TABLE_NAME = 'TableA' AND COLUMN_NAME <> 'id'
--select #cols -- display column list for debugging
DECLARE #sqltxt varchar(max) = 'INSERT INTO TableA (' + #cols + ') SELECT * FROM #tmp';
--SELECT #sqltxt -- display the statement for debugging
exec (#sqltxt)
DROP TABLE #tmp
Try This
Step 1 :
INSERT INTO Employee1(FirstName,LastName,ManagerID,Salary)
SELECT FirstName,LastName,ManagerID,Salary
FROM Employee1
WHERE EmployeeID=X -- Your Emplyee ID
Step 2:
DELETE FROM Employee1 WHERE EmployeeID=X
Related
I am using Sql-Server 2016 in a C# application.
Let's say I have two tables:
CREATE TABLE Table_A
(
UserID NVARCHAR2(15),
FullName NVARCHAR2(25),
Available NUMBER(1),
MachineID NVARCHAR2(20),
myDate date
);
and
CREATE TABLE Table_B
(
UserID NVARCHAR2(15),
FullName NVARCHAR2(25),
Team NVARCHAR2(15),
MachineID NVARCHAR2(20),
Stuff NUMBER(2)
);
I want to perform a global select so that I will get as result data from both tables, somehow concatenated and of course, when a column does not exist in one of the tables, that column to be automatically populated with NULL, and if a column exists on both tables the results must be merged in a single column.
The first solution that pops-up is a UNION with NULL aliases for the missing columns, sure. The problem is that at runtime I will not be able to know in advance which tables are interrogated so that I could anticipate the column names. I need a more general solution.
The expected result from the two tables must look like this:
user_Table_A; fullName_Table_A; 1; machineID_Table_A; 12-JUN-18; NULL; 10;
user_Table_B; fullName_Table_B; NULL; machineID_Table_B; NULL; team_Table_B; 20;
The data for the two tables is inserted with the following commands:
INSERT INTO Table_A VALUES ('user_Table_A', 'fullName_Table_A', 1, 'machineID_Table_A', TO_DATE('12-06-2018', 'DD-MM-YYYY'));
INSERT INTO Table_B VALUES ('user_Table_B', 'fullName_Table_B', 'team_Table_B', 'machineID_Table_B', 20);
You can do something like this. I havent have time to completely tweak it, so there can be something the order of the columns. But perhaps it can get you started:
You also write that you use Oracle - Im not sure what you wanted, but this is in pure sql-server version.
SQL:
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#temp') IS NOT NULL
/*Then it exists*/
DROP TABLE #temp;
GO
DECLARE #SQLList nvarchar(max)
DECLARE #SQLList2 nvarchar(max)
DECLARE #SQL nvarchar(max)
with table_a as (
select column_name as Table_aColumnName,ORDINAL_POSITION from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS
where TABLE_NAME = 'table_a'
)
,
table_b as (
select column_name as Table_bColumnName,ORDINAL_POSITION from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS
where TABLE_NAME = 'table_b'
)
,preresult as (
select case when Table_aColumnName IS null then 'NULL as ' + Table_bColumnName else Table_aColumnName end as Table_a_ColumnName,case when Table_bColumnName IS null then 'NULL as ' +Table_aColumnName else Table_bColumnName end as Table_b_ColumnName
,a.ORDINAL_POSITION,b.ORDINAL_POSITION as Table_b_Ordinal from table_a a full join Table_B b on a.Table_aColumnName = b.Table_bColumnName
)
select * into #temp from preresult
SET #SQLList = (
select distinct display = STUFF((select ','+table_a_columnName from #temp b order by table_b_ordinal FOR XML PATH('')),1,1,'') from #temp a
)
SET #SQLList2 = (
select distinct display = STUFF((select ','+table_b_columnName from #temp b order by Table_b_Ordinal FOR XML PATH('')),1,1,'') from #temp a
)
SET #SQL = 'select ' +#SQLList +' from dbo.Table_a union all select ' + #SQLList2 + ' from dbo.table_b'
exec(#SQL)
Result:
I'm trying to figure out a way to update a record without having to list every column name that needs to be updated.
For instance, it would be nice if I could use something similar to the following:
// the parts inside braces are what I am trying to figure out
UPDATE Employee
SET {all columns, without listing each of them}
WITH {this record with id of '111' from other table}
WHERE employee_id = '100'
If this can be done, what would be the most straightforward/efficient way of writing such a query?
It's not possible.
What you're trying to do is not part of SQL specification and is not supported by any database vendor. See the specifications of SQL UPDATE statements for MySQL, Postgresql, MSSQL, Oracle, Firebird, Teradata. Every one of those supports only below syntax:
UPDATE table_reference
SET column1 = {expression} [, column2 = {expression}] ...
[WHERE ...]
This is not posible, but..
you can doit:
begin tran
delete from table where CONDITION
insert into table select * from EqualDesingTabletoTable where CONDITION
commit tran
be carefoul with identity fields.
Here's a hardcore way to do it with SQL SERVER. Carefully consider security and integrity before you try it, though.
This uses schema to get the names of all the columns and then puts together a big update statement to update all columns except ID column, which it uses to join the tables.
This only works for a single column key, not composites.
usage: EXEC UPDATE_ALL 'source_table','destination_table','id_column'
CREATE PROCEDURE UPDATE_ALL
#SOURCE VARCHAR(100),
#DEST VARCHAR(100),
#ID VARCHAR(100)
AS
DECLARE #SQL VARCHAR(MAX) =
'UPDATE D SET ' +
-- Google 'for xml path stuff' This gets the rows from query results and
-- turns into comma separated list.
STUFF((SELECT ', D.'+ COLUMN_NAME + ' = S.' + COLUMN_NAME
FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS
WHERE TABLE_NAME = #DEST
AND COLUMN_NAME <> #ID
FOR XML PATH('')),1,1,'')
+ ' FROM ' + #SOURCE + ' S JOIN ' + #DEST + ' D ON S.' + #ID + ' = D.' + #ID
--SELECT #SQL
EXEC (#SQL)
In Oracle PL/SQL, you can use the following syntax:
DECLARE
r my_table%ROWTYPE;
BEGIN
r.a := 1;
r.b := 2;
...
UPDATE my_table
SET ROW = r
WHERE id = r.id;
END;
Of course that just moves the burden from the UPDATE statement to the record construction, but you might already have fetched the record from somewhere.
How about using Merge?
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb522522(v=sql.105).aspx
It gives you the ability to run Insert, Update, and Delete. One other piece of advice is if you're going to be updating a large data set with indexes, and the source subset is smaller than your target but both tables are very large, move the changes to a temporary table first. I tried to merge two tables that were nearly two million rows each and 20 records took 22 minutes. Once I moved the deltas over to a temp table, it took seconds.
If you are using Oracle, you can use rowtype
declare
var_x TABLE_A%ROWTYPE;
Begin
select * into var_x
from TABLE_B where rownum = 1;
update TABLE_A set row = var_x
where ID = var_x.ID;
end;
/
given that TABLE_A and TABLE_B are of same schema
It is possible. Like npe said it's not a standard practice. But if you really have to:
1. First a scalar function
CREATE FUNCTION [dte].[getCleanUpdateQuery] (#pTableName varchar(40), #pQueryFirstPart VARCHAR(200) = '', #pQueryLastPart VARCHAR(200) = '', #pIncludeCurVal BIT = 1)
RETURNS VARCHAR(8000) AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #pQuery VARCHAR(8000);
WITH cte_Temp
AS
(
SELECT
C.name
FROM SYS.COLUMNS AS C
INNER JOIN SYS.TABLES AS T ON T.object_id = C.object_id
WHERE T.name = #pTableName
)
SELECT #pQuery = (
CASE #pIncludeCurVal
WHEN 0 THEN
(
STUFF(
(SELECT ', ' + name + ' = ' + #pQueryFirstPart + #pQueryLastPart FROM cte_Temp FOR XML PATH('')), 1, 2, ''
)
)
ELSE
(
STUFF(
(SELECT ', ' + name + ' = ' + #pQueryFirstPart + name + #pQueryLastPart FROM cte_Temp FOR XML PATH('')), 1, 2, ''
)
) END)
RETURN 'UPDATE ' + #pTableName + ' SET ' + #pQuery
END
2. Use it like this
DECLARE #pQuery VARCHAR(8000) = dte.getCleanUpdateQuery(<your table name>, <query part before current value>, <query part after current value>, <1 if current value is used. 0 if updating everything to a static value>);
EXEC (#pQuery)
Example 1: make all employees columns 'Unknown' (you need to make sure column type matches the intended value:
DECLARE #pQuery VARCHAR(8000) = dte.getCleanUpdateQuery('employee', '', 'Unknown', 0);
EXEC (#pQuery)
Example 2: Remove an undesired text qualifier (e.g. #)
DECLARE #pQuery VARCHAR(8000) = dte.getCleanUpdateQuery('employee', 'REPLACE(', ', ''#'', '''')', 1);
EXEC (#pQuery)
This query can be improved. This is just the one I saved and sometime I use. You get the idea.
Similar to an upsert, you could check if the item exists on the table, if so, delete it and insert it with the new values (technically updating it) but you would lose your rowid if that's something sensitive to keep in your case.
Behold, the updelsert
IF NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM Employee WHERE ID = #SomeID)
INSERT INTO Employee VALUES(#SomeID, #Your, #Vals, #Here)
ELSE
DELETE FROM Employee WHERE ID = #SomeID
INSERT INTO Employee VALUES(#SomeID, #Your, #Vals, #Here)
you could do it by deleting the column in the table and adding the column back in and adding a default value of whatever you needed it to be. then saving this will require to rebuild the table
Ok, so I have 2 tables in all:
Table 1 has these 3 columns which are not meaningful as they are just a varchar value:
Q19243 Q19244 Q19245
Table 2 has 2 columns ColumnName and TextValue.
ColumnName holds the values of the name of the 3 columns in Table 1 (Q19243 etc) and also has a corresponding column called TextValue which holds a friendly description of what Q19243 actually means.
So there are 3 records in Table 2, 1 for each column in Table 1.
I would like to rename these 3 columns in Table 1 to equal whatever is in the TextValue column in Table 2. I would like to do this dynamically rather than a simple UPDATE statement to rename the columns. Sorry I did not attach screen shots but I do not see an attach button to do so...
If you run this code to create an example of the 2 tables then you should probably have a better idea of what I'm referring to.
create table #Table1 (Q19243 varchar(10),Q19244 varchar(10),Q19245 varchar(10))
Create table #Table2 (ColumnName varchar(10),TextValue varchar(50))
Insert into #Table2 select 'Q19243','Provider Name'
Insert into #Table2 select 'Q19244','The Provider You Usually See'
Insert into #Table2 select 'Q19245','How Long Going to Provider'
select * from #Table1
select * from #Table2
drop table #Table1
drop table #Table2
Since the purpose of the column rename is for output purposes only, you can use a query against Table2 to create Dynamic SQL specific to Table1 that aliases the column names on the SELECT.
(the following example uses the sample code in the original question and only differs by what is between the --============== lines)
create table #Table1 (Q19243 varchar(10),Q19244 varchar(10),Q19245 varchar(10))
Create table #Table2 (ColumnName nvarchar(10),TextValue nvarchar(50))
Insert into #Table2 select 'Q19243','Provider Name'
Insert into #Table2 select 'Q19244','The Provider You Usually See'
Insert into #Table2 select 'Q19245','How Long Going to Provider'
select * from #Table1
select * from #Table2
--=========================================
DECLARE #SQL NVARCHAR(MAX)
SELECT #SQL = COALESCE(#SQL + N',', N'SELECT')
+ N' t1.'
+ t2.ColumnName
+ N' AS ['
+ t2.TextValue
+ N']'
FROM #Table2 t2
SET #SQL = #SQL + N' FROM #Table1 t1'
SELECT #SQL
EXEC(#SQL)
--=========================================
drop table #Table1
drop table #Table2
The value of #SQL after the SELECT #SQL= query is:
SELECT t1.Q19243 AS [Provider Name], t1.Q19244 AS [The Provider You
Usually See], t1.Q19245 AS [How Long Going to Provider] FROM #Table1
t1
Note: you need the square-brackets around the field name alias (value from Table2.TextValue) as there are spaces in the string.
I have a table with 200 records so i need to show all 200 rows as 200 columns it is not possible to write all 200 records in pivot IN() section as when i insert 201st record in table its column should also to be shown.
select * from Table_Name
Returns 200 rows
so i need to show 200 columns in other queries
SELECT * FROM
(
select RecordName from Table_Name
) AS T
PIVOT (Max(RecordName) FOR MiscMasterName IN (Record1,Record2)) AS T2
gives 2 columns
like wise i need 200 columns such that if i add 201st records
and wherever i execute the query i get 201 columns after inserting new record....
You need to do a dynamic pivot. Something like this:
Test data:
CREATE TABLE Table_Name(MiscMasterName VARCHAR(200),RecordName VARCHAR(200))
INSERT INTO Table_Name
VALUES
('Record1','aValue'),
('Record2','SomeValue')
Finding the columns
DECLARE #cols VARCHAR(MAX)
SET #cols=STUFF
(
(
SELECT
',' +QUOTENAME(MiscMasterName)
FROM
Table_Name
FOR XML PATH('')
)
,1,1,'')
Declare and executing dynamic sql
DECLARE #query NVARCHAR(4000)=
N'SELECT
*
FROM
(
SELECT
RecordName,
MiscMasterName
from
Table_Name
) AS T
PIVOT (Max(RecordName) FOR MiscMasterName IN ('+#cols+')) AS T2'
EXECUTE(#query)
Cleaning up after myself
DROP TABLE Table_Name
Output
Record1 Record2
aValue SomeValue
I've been working on a project and came across some interesting behavior when using SELECT INTO. If I have a table with a column defined as int identity(1,1) not null and use SELECT INTO to copy it, the new table will retain the IDENTITY property unless there is a join involved. If there is a join, then the same column on the new table is defined simply as int not null.
Here is a script that you can run to reproduce the behavior:
CREATE TABLE People (Id INT IDENTITY(1,1) not null, Name VARCHAR(10))
CREATE TABLE ReverseNames (Name varchar(10), ReverseName varchar(10))
INSERT INTO People (Name)
VALUES ('John'), ('Jamie'), ('Joe'), ('Jenna')
INSERT INTO ReverseNames (Name, ReverseName)
VALUES ('John','nhoJ'), ('Jamie','eimaJ'), ('Joe','eoJ'), ('Jenna','anneJ')
--------
SELECT Id, Name
INTO People_ExactCopy
FROM People
SELECT Id, ReverseName as Name
INTO People_WithJoin
FROM People
JOIN ReverseNames
ON People.Name = ReverseNames.Name
SELECT Id, (SELECT ReverseName FROM ReverseNames WHERE Name = People.Name) as Name
INTO People_WithSubSelect
FROM People
--------
SELECT OBJECT_NAME(c.object_id) as [Table],
c.is_identity as [Id Column Retained Identity]
FROM sys.columns c
where
OBJECT_NAME(c.object_id) IN ('People_ExactCopy','People_WithJoin','People_WithSubSelect')
AND c.name = 'Id'
--------
DROP TABLE People
DROP TABLE People_ExactCopy
DROP TABLE People_WithJoin
DROP TABLE People_WithSubSelect
DROP TABLE ReverseNames
I noticed that the execution plans for both the WithJoin and WithSubSelect queries contained one join operator. I'm not sure if one will be significantly better on performance if we were dealing with a larger set of rows.
Can anyone shed any light on this and tell me if there is a way to utilize SELECT INTO with joins and still preserve the IDENTITY property?
From Microsoft:
When an existing identity column is
selected into a new table, the new
column inherits the IDENTITY property,
unless one of the following conditions
is true:
The SELECT statement contains a join, GROUP BY clause, or aggregate function.
Multiple SELECT statements are joined by using UNION.
The identity column is listed more than one time in the select list.
The identity column is part of an expression.
The identity column is from a remote data source.
If any one of these conditions is
true, the column is created NOT NULL
instead of inheriting the IDENTITY
property. If an identity column is
required in the new table but such a
column is not available, or you want a
seed or increment value that is
different than the source identity
column, define the column in the
select list using the IDENTITY
function.
You could use the IDENTITY function as they suggest and omit the IDENTITY column, but then you would lose the values, as the IDENTITY function would generate new values and I don't think that those are easily determinable, even with ORDER BY.
I don't believe there is much you can do, except build your CREATE TABLE statements manually, SET IDENTITY_INSERT ON, insert the existing values, then SET IDENTITY_INSERT OFF. Yes you lose the benefits of SELECT INTO, but unless your tables are huge and you are doing this a lot, [shrug]. This is not fun of course, and it's not as pretty or simple as SELECT INTO, but you can do it somewhat programmatically, assuming two tables, one having a simple identity (1,1), and a simple INNER JOIN:
SET NOCOUNT ON;
DECLARE
#NewTable SYSNAME = N'dbo.People_ExactCopy',
#JoinCondition NVARCHAR(255) = N' ON p.Name = r.Name';
DECLARE
#cols TABLE(t SYSNAME, c SYSNAME, p CHAR(1));
INSERT #cols SELECT N'dbo.People', N'Id', 'p'
UNION ALL SELECT N'dbo.ReverseNames', N'Name', 'r';
DECLARE #sql NVARCHAR(MAX) = N'CREATE TABLE ' + #NewTable + '
(
';
SELECT #sql += c.name + ' ' + t.name
+ CASE WHEN t.name LIKE '%char' THEN
'(' + CASE WHEN c.max_length = -1
THEN 'MAX' ELSE RTRIM(c.max_length/
(CASE WHEN t.name LIKE 'n%' THEN 2 ELSE 1 END)) END
+ ')' ELSE '' END
+ CASE c.is_identity
WHEN 1 THEN ' IDENTITY(1,1)'
ELSE ' ' END + ',
'
FROM sys.columns AS c
INNER JOIN #cols AS cols
ON c.object_id = OBJECT_ID(cols.t)
INNER JOIN sys.types AS t
ON c.system_type_id = t.system_type_id
AND c.name = cols.c;
SET #sql = LEFT(#sql, LEN(#sql)-1) + '
);
SET IDENTITY_INSERT ' + #NewTable + ' ON;
INSERT ' + #NewTable + '(';
SELECT #sql += c + ',' FROM #cols;
SET #sql = LEFT(#sql, LEN(#sql)-1) + ')
SELECT ';
SELECT #sql += p + '.' + c + ',' FROM #cols;
SET #sql = LEFT(#sql, LEN(#sql)-1) + '
FROM ';
SELECT #sql += t + ' AS ' + p + '
INNER JOIN ' FROM (SELECT DISTINCT
t,p FROM #cols) AS x;
SET #sql = LEFT(#sql, LEN(#sql)-10)
+ #JoinCondition + ';
SET IDENTITY_INSERT ' + #NewTable + ' OFF;';
PRINT #sql;
With the tables given above, this produces the following, which you could pass to EXEC sp_executeSQL instead of PRINT:
CREATE TABLE dbo.People_ExactCopy
(
Id int IDENTITY(1,1),
Name varchar(10)
);
SET IDENTITY_INSERT dbo.People_ExactCopy ON;
INSERT dbo.People_ExactCopy(Id,Name)
SELECT p.Id,r.Name
FROM dbo.People AS p
INNER JOIN dbo.ReverseNames AS r
ON p.Name = r.Name;
SET IDENTITY_INSERT dbo.People_ExactCopy OFF;
I did not deal with other complexities such as DECIMAL columns or other columns that have parameters such as max_length, nor did I deal with nullability, but these things wouldn't be hard to add it if you need greater flexibility.
In the next version of SQL Server (code-named "Denali") you should be able to construct a CREATE TABLE statement much easier using the new metadata discovery functions - which do much of the grunt work for you in terms of specifying precision/scale/length, dealing with MAX, etc. You still have to manually create indexes and constraints; but you don't get those with SELECT INTO either.
What we really need is DDL that allows you to say something like "CREATE TABLE a IDENTICAL TO b;" or "CREATE TABLE a BASED ON b;"... it's been asked for here, but has been rejected (this is about copying a table to another schema, but the same concept could apply to a new table in the same schema with a different table name). http://connect.microsoft.com/SQLServer/feedback/details/632689
I realize this is a really late response but whoever is still looking for this solution, like I was until I found this solution:
You can't use the JOIN operator for the IDENTITY column property to be inherited.
What you can do is use a WHERE clause like this:
SELECT a.*
INTO NewTable
FROM
MyTable a
WHERE
EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM SecondTable b WHERE b.ID = a.ID)
This works.