For a web-application, we are dependant on CMS deployed on web-logic and web-app deployed on tomcat. When user access a page, dynamic content is rendered from tomcat(sticky session is enabled) and static content(js, css etc.,) are rendered from CMS(on web-logic). This is leading to a conflict on JSESSIONID cookie. The web-logic JSESSIONID is overriding the Tomcat JSESSIONID and the user is loosing the contents saved in session, when moving to and from various parts of the site.
The request flow is as below
[1]: http://i.stack.imgur.com/17Ft5.png
As a band-aid, we wrote a rule on load balancer to drop JSESSIONID for all responses coming from CMS.
Though it worked, looking for a better way to handle this.
Why your CMS is setting a cookie? Does it need sessions to provide those files?
Usually static files do not need a session. One should allow them to be cached on proxies and on the client.
Configure your CMS appropriately. If it is a web application, you may add a Filter that removes Set-Cookie header from its responses (like you are doing on your LB).
It is possible to change the name of a session cookie. This is configurable using <session-config>/<cookie-config>/<name> element in web.xml in web applications that adhere to Servlet 3.0 (or later) specification.
(It is also configurable as sessionCookieName attribute on Context element in META-INF/context.xml, but using web.xml is the recommended way).
Note that Cookies can have a Path attribute. A browser won't send a cookie if its Path does not match the URL of the request. Cookies with Path:/web and Path:/content can happily co-exist together.
Tomcat supports requests that have several JSESSIONID cookies. It just chooses the one that matches an existing session. All the others are ignored.
Related
I've set a cookie banner for a domain.com. It's a plugin for CMS. It works with user consent - blocking or giving permission to load a GTM script.
And I have an e-shop based on PrestaShop with a cookie banner plugin, which works with the same logic.
e-shop is placed on a subdomain.domain.com.
The problem: once a user grants consent on domain.com GTM cookies are loaded, the user clicks on a button leading to subdomain.domain.com (e-shop) and all previous cookies are loaded. What is not a good behaviour for a GDPR
So, is there an easy way to clear previous cookies?
Prestashop runs on Apache server
From MDN:
Domain attribute
The Domain attribute specifies which hosts can receive a cookie. If unspecified, the attribute defaults to the same host that set the cookie, excluding subdomains. If Domain is specified, then subdomains are always included. Therefore, specifying Domain is less restrictive than omitting it. However, it can be helpful when subdomains need to share information about a user.
When setting your cookies, omit the Domain attribute.
This will prevent future cookies being applied to the subdomains (and will overwrite the old ones which were on the next visit which sets them).
Is it possible to support cookies in an IFrame that won't be broken by some of the recent cookie security improvements? The IFrame is embedded on arbitrary domains that we don't control. Other than the initial request URI being passed, we don't care about any special message passing or cross domain access.
Context: an app I've inherited serves authenticated S3 content in an IFrame to users. The content is proxied by CloudFront, leaning on their Signed Cookies feature to authenticate the initial HTML page, as well as every other asset (CSS, JS, images, etc.) that might be on the page. The cookie is generated/set after a successful auth handshake.
Recently, the move towards blocking third party cookies has broken this model. Users need to downgrade their security settings, and this will flat out stop working soon.
Short of a larger architectural change, is there a way to configure the cookies or CF to work within an IFrame, embedded on domains we don't control? My assumption is that this model is fundamentally broken now, but I wanted to triple check before reaching for a larger architectural change.
Thanks
Lets say I have my website named SiteA.com running on an Apache web server. I have defined the ff. below on my httpd.conf file:
Header set Access-Control-Allow-Origin "CustomBank.com"
Questions:
Does this mean only CustomBank.com can access my site (SiteA.com) directly? or does it mean only my site (SiteA.com) can access the CustomBank.com domain directly? I am confused if this setting is for inbound or outbound.
In reality I don't have any CORS requirement needed for my site, so I didn't implement the setting mentioned above, the one below shows up in my response header.
Access-Control-Allow-Origin: *
Penetration Testing team said this setting is overly permissive. Do I just need to remove it? if not what should I do?
It means javascript loaded from CustomBank.com can make requests to your site (the site whose configuration has changed) via XMLHTPRequest in the background.
Since XMLHTTPRequest will send a users existing session cookie with your site, malicious scripts could do all kinds of nefarious/misleading things on behalf of your user. That's why * is not normally a suitable fix.
The restrictions apply to other script-like invocations that are more esoteric that you can read about in the specs.
In ASP.NET Core application I have a action method that returns some data. I wanted to cache this data on client side. So based on the documentation here i can use ResponseCache attribute on the action method. This attribute adds Cache-Control header in response
Response caching refers to specifying cache-related headers on HTTP
responses made by ASP.NET Core MVC actions. These headers specify how
you want client and intermediate (proxy) machines to cache responses
to certain requests (if at all). This can reduce the number of
requests a client or proxy makes to the web server, since future
requests for the same action may be served from the client or proxy’s
cache.
also
Response caching does not cache responses on the web server. It
differs from output caching, which would cache responses in memory on
the server in earlier versions of ASP.NET and ASP.NET MVC.
So this is how my action method looks
public class LookupController : Controller
{
[HttpGet]
[ResponseCache(Duration = 120)]
public IEnumerable<StateProvinceLookupModel> GetStateProvinces()
{
return _domain.GetStateProvinces();
}
}
Then i call the method using browser as http://localhost:40004/lookup/getstateprovinces
Here is the request and response headers
Notice that Response Headers has Cache-Control: public,max-age-120 as expected.
However if refresh the page using F5 (before 120 seconds), the debugger breakpoint inside GetStateProvince action method alway hits. That means its not cahing the data on client side.
Is there anything else i need to do to enable client side caching?
Update
I have tried using IE, Chrome and also POSTMAN with no luck. Everytime i type the url in address bar or hit refresh the client ( that is browser or postman) makes a call to action method.
Actually ResponseCache attribute works as intended.
The difference is that the response is cached if you navigate through your website pages (case 1), or use back and forward buttons (not when refreshing the page).
As an example of case 1, I have the following:
you're on page http://localhost:65060/Home/Index
type another url and click enter or click a link in your webpage: http://localhost:65060/Home/Users
type again the url http://localhost:65060/Home/Index (you will see that this time the response for this url gets fetched from disk cache)
As you will see in the article Response Caching in ASP.Net Core 1.1, the following is stated:
During a browser session, browsing multiple pages within the website or using back and forward button to visit the pages, content will be served from the local browser cache (if not expired).
But when page is refreshed via F5, the request will be go to the server and page content will get refreshed. You can verify it via refreshing contact page using F5.
So when you hit F5, response caching expiration value has no role to play to serve the content. You should see 200 response for contact request.
References:
[1]. ASP.NET Core Response Caching Sample
[2]. ResponseCache attribute sample
[3]: How to control web page caching, across all browsers?
Long story short, using the ResponseCache attribute like the following is sufficient to get expiration-based client-side caching to work in a brand new, default dotnet core project (including async methods):
[HttpGet]
[ResponseCache(Duration = 120)]
public IEnumerable<StateProvinceLookupModel> GetStateProvinces()
{
return _domain.GetStateProvinces();
}
This is working correctly in the screenshot above, as the Cache-Control: public,max-age=120 is visible there. In most cases, browsers won't send subsequent requests before the expiration (i.e. for the next 120 seconds or 2 minutes), but this is a decision of the browser (or other client).
If the request is sent regardless, you either have some middleware or server configuration overwriting your response headers, or your client ignores the caching directive. In the screenshot above, the client ignores caching, because the cache control header is there.
Common cases where the client cache is ignored and the request is sent:
Chrome prevents any kind of caching when using HTTPS without a certificate (or an invalid certificate, this is often common for local development, so make sure to use HTTP when testing your cache, or trust a self-signed cert)
Most browser dev tools disable caching by default when open, this can be disabled
Browsers usually send additional headers, Chrome sends Cache-Control: no-cache
Refreshing directly (i.e. Ctrl+F5) will instruct most browsers to not use a cache and make the request regardless of age
Browsers usually send additional headers, Chrome sends Cache-Control: max-age=0 (this is visible in your screenshot)
Postman sends the Cache-Control: no-cache header which makes it bypass the local cache, resulting in requests to be sent; you can disable it from the settings dialog, in which case requests will no longer be sent with the above client cache configuration
At this point we are beyond expiration-based client caching, and the server will receive the request in one way or another, and another layer of caching occurs: you may make the server respond with a 304 Not Modified code (which is then again up to the client to interpret in whatever way it wants) or use a server-side cache and respond with the full content. Or you may not use any subsequent caching and just perform the entire request processing again on the server.
Note: the ResponseCache attribute is not to be confused with services.AddResponseCaching() & app.UseResponseCaching() middleware in startup configuration, because that is for server-side caching (which by default uses an in-memory cache, when using the middleware). The middleware is not required for client-caching to work, the attribute by itself is enough.
First of all I want to clarify few thing and I am sure that you already knew it.
ResponseCache is not equal to OutputCache any way.
ResponseCache is as per my thinking set header but it does not cache anything on server side.
Now If you want to Cache same as OutputCache then you might have to use preview release 1.1 that just release.
ASP.net core 1.1 preview release
https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/webdev/2016/10/25/announcing-asp-net-core-1-1-preview-1/
They introduce new Response Caching Middleware. Response Caching Middleware
Demo of it available here . https://github.com/aspnet/ResponseCaching/blob/dev/samples/ResponseCachingSample/Startup.cs
I have an ASP.NET MVC action that sends a GET request to another server via HttpWebRequest. I'd like to include all cookies in the original action's request in the new request. Some of the System.Web.HttpCookies in the original request have empty domain values (i.e. ""), which apparently doesn't cause any issues. When I create a System.Net.Cookie using the name, value, path, and domain of each of these cookies and add it to the request's CookieContainer, I get this error:
"System.ArgumentException: The parameter '{0}' cannot be an empty string. Parameter name: cookie.Domain"
Here's some code that will throw the same error (when the cookie is added):
var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.whatever.com");
request.Method = "GET";
request.CookieContainer = new CookieContainer();
request.CookieContainer.Add ( new Cookie ( "MyCookieName", "MyCookieValue", "/", "") );
EDIT
I sort of fixed this by using "localhost" for the domain, instead of the null or empty string value from the original HttpCookie. So, why does an empty domain not work for the CookieContainer? And does HttpCookie use an empty value to signify localhost, or do I need to find another fix for this problem?
Disclaimer:
As stated earlier by #feroze, setting your cookies' domain to localhost is not going to work out so well for you. I'm assuming you're writing a helper that allows you to tunnel HTTP requests out to foreign domains. Note that this is not best practice and in a lot of cases is not needed (i.e. jQuery has a lot of cool cross-domain support built-in, also see the new CORS specification). But sometimes you may be stuck doing this (i.e. the external resource is XML only, and is on a server that doesn't support CORS).
Background Information on Cookie Domains and How They Work:
If you haven't already take a look at HTTP Cookie: Domain and Path on Wikipedia -- pretty much everything you need to know is in there.
When evaluating a cookie, the Domain and Path are taken into account by both the client (the "local" requester) and the web server (the "foreign" responder). When a client requests a resource, the client should only send cookies where those cookies match the Domain (or a more generic parent domain) and Path (or a more generic parent path) of the URI being requested.
Web browsers handle this correctly. If a web browser has a cookie for the domain "localhost" and you're requesting "google.com", for example, those cookies for the "localhost" domain won't be sent in the request to "google.com". -- In fact, most modern browsers won't just not send them, they'll completely ignore them in Set-Cookie response headers that they receive (these are called third-party cookies -- enabling the acceptance of third party cookies in your web browser is a huge privacy/security concern -- don't do it!).
It works in the other direction as well -- even though it's unlikely for a client to include a third party cookie in a request, if it does, the foreign web server is supposed to ignore it (and even some cookies for correct domains/paths, so as to prevent the infamous super-cookie issue. (i.e. The web server hosting "example.com" should ignore cookies belonging to its parent domain: ".com", because ".com" is a "public suffix")).
What You Should Do [if you have to]:
The course of action I recommend for you, is when you read in your client's cookies (I'm not an MVC guy, but in regular ASP.NET this would be in Request.Cookies), loop through them (make sure to filter out your own site's legitimate cookies, especially SessionId, etc -- or use Path properly so they never get sent to this page in the first place), then add them one at a time to the outgoing request's cookie collection, rewriting the domain to be "www.whatever.com" (per your example -- if you're doing this dynamically, load the URL into a new Uri() object and use the .Host property), and then set the Path to "/". -- This will build the "Cookie" header for the outgoing request to the foreign web server.
When that request returns to your server, you then need to check it's incoming response for new cookies -- those cookies can be repackaged and sent back down to your client in much the same type of loop as I illustrated in the previous paragraph, except you'll want to rewrite Host to be Request.Url.Host -- and you'll want to set path back to "/" unless the path to your passthru page is static (I'm guessing it isn't since you're using MVC) then you'd want to set it to Request.Url.AbsolutePath for instance.
Happy Coding!
EDIT:
Also, you'll want to set the X-Forwarded-For tag of the outgoing request, so that the website you're calling doesn't think your web server is one single client that's been spamming the crap out of them.
Not sure it solves your problem. But to add cookies without the "Domain" property you must add to the headers the cookies using HttpRequestHeader.Cookie as follows.
request.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.Cookie, "Your cookies...");
Hope it helps!
Some background
This occurs because CookieContainer is client-side container designed to be reused across multiple HttpWebRequest. Reusing it provides the expected cookie behavior that cookies set by the remote host are sent back with every subsequent HttpWebRequests targeted at the same host.
As a result of the reuse, a CookieContainer might actually contain cookies from multiple request and\or hosts.
So, in order to determine which of the cookies in the container need to be sent with a particular HttpWebRequest to some host (domain), CookieContainer examines the Domain and the Path property.
That's why a Cookie in a CookieContainer needs to have a valid Domain.
Conversely, on the server-side cookies are delivered via a different type, CookieCollection which a simple list of cookies with no extra logic.
Specifically, in your case, while copying cookies from the CookieCollection to the CookieContainer you need to set the Domain property of every cookie to the domain your are going to forward the request to, so that HttpWebRequest will know to include the cookies while sending the request.
You are trying to get cookies sent to localhost, right?
Why don't you do something like this where you give your own machine a real name:
Edit your hosts file and add a line "127.0.0.1 myname.com"
Test using myname.com - which is actually your localhost.
Your browser or app will not know the difference and send cookies to myname.com if that is where the cookie belongs.
Detailed info:
The Hosts file on windows is located at C:\Windows\System32\drivers\etc\hosts