I have written a program in vb.net for in house use that connects to a Progress OpenEdge database. Now I'm having a really weird runtime problem.
I have a .exe file that runs on my local C: drive, the C: drive of the servers, from a certain network Location (but not other places on the network) just fine on at least two regular users. The problem is that when I submit it to my IT manager for review she gives it back and says it wont even run; on looking at the error, it seems to fail on the very first select query (which happens before the form finishes loading) Specifically, it ultimately boils down to the error below:
System.Data.Odbc.OdbcException: ERROR [HY000] [DataDirect][ODBC Progress OpenEdge Wire Protocol driver]Number contains an invalid character: ?
ERROR [HY000] [DataDirect][ODBC Progress OpenEdge Wire Protocol driver]Number contains an invalid character: ?
now, certainly, I'm using data sources in visual studio and parameterized queries. So, yes, if it's trying to run it as straight SQL and not filling the parameters like it's supposed to, then there is a question mark in a number field. My question is: why does the same .exe, in the same place, run by a user with HIGHER privileges throw errors?
Are you initializing the integer variable with zero (0). The question mark in progress means unknown value.
If you are still running into a problem or haven't verified a solution yet, maybe check this KnowledgeBase article on SQL tracking out to make sure that the interpretation/execution of these statements is correct.
Providing that everything is the same with the SQL statements, the problem is most likely with the way the .exe is being run. There may be filling with an alpha character rather than numeric input depending on how the .exe is being run.
Related
I have a question regarding error handling practices within SQL Server.
What I would like to accomplish is easy error re-creation. I have a very active SQL Server installation with constantly changing data in the tables I am interested in. It is modeling an active warehouse environment.
I've already built a generic error handler for all the stored procedures on this installation in order to track errors and log specifics about the cause of the error such as:
calling line (this gives the EXEC statement of the stored procedure as well as input variables)
error_message
error_state
error_number
error_line
etc.
What I am missing is reproducibility. Even if I were to run the same statement just a few minutes after being notified that an error occurred, I cannot be sure that my results would be the same due to the underlying data changing.
I would like to capture the state of the data on the database when the error occurred.
This could be something like a database image that I could then import into a clean SQL Server installation and execute the erring line in order to perfectly capture what was happening on the database the moment the error occurred.
Due to the nature of needing to capture this at runtime, I would prefer a light-weight solution. Perhaps only capturing the tables relevant to the failing statement.
Does anyone know if this is possible or has been done before? It is really only critical to try and suss out logical errors. It wouldn't be necessary for something like a deadlock.
I would ultimately turn these data subsets into XML or JSON and include them in the error log when appropriate.
I have two Access databases that I'm opening on the same computer. In one, running this in the immediate window works as expected (opens Notepad):
Shell "notepad.exe"
In the other, I get this error instead:
Run-time error '5': Invalid procedure call or argument
I have not been able to come up with any shell command that will run successfully in that second database. No matter what, I get that error.
What is going on here? Could there be a security setting coming into play? Or perhaps one is an older version?
Edit - More Info
When I go to the definition of Shell in the malfunctioning database, it goes to VBA.Interaction.Shell.
I get the correct IntelliSense tooltip for Shell.
I tried VBA.Shell "notepad.exe" and VBA.Interaction.Shell "notepad.exe" without success (same error).
Here are the references that are checked in both databases:
Decompiling did not help.
The culprit was our anti-virus software! UGH!
Why did it work in one database and not the other then? I'm told that years ago, anti-virus exceptions were made for my computer for the one database but not the other.
I recommend that any others who encounter this problem check their anti-virus logs/policies. Also, running the database from another computer with different policies in place might shed some light on the issue faster. In this case, when I used remote desktop to log into a server, I was able to call shell successfully.
I've created and compiled a program in Cobol, but when trying to run and test it with a JCL job, I'm getting this error when reading the output. (The program compiles and the job runs without errors themselves)
SQLCODE = -991, ERROR: CALL ATTACH WAS UNABLE TO ESTABLISH AN IMPLICIT CONNECT OR OPEN TO DB2. RC1=0008 RC2=00F30034
SQLSTATE = 57015
Now I don't understand why this error occurs. The DB2 database is up and running, I can access it myself. I can't find an error in my program code either. Googling it sadly doesn't provide me a clear solution, all I can find is that the issue is either the compiling job for the program, the jcl to run it or issues with the DB2 itself.
Have you done a bind and did it work !!!, The error indicates the plan does not exist or is not authorized.
You need to talk to people at your site about the Compile/Bind process and who
authorises
If you do not know know about Mainframe Cobol/DB2 compile process, try
reading this
Basically --->
Cobol program
Cobol DB2 Program ---+----> with no SQL ---> Compile -----> Executable
| but calls Plan
|
+----> DBRM (SQL) -----> Bind ------> DB2 Plan
It is the plan that needs the DB2 authorisation to run the SQL !!!
You might be able to authorise the Plan or you might need to see the DBA's
With DB2 COBOL, There is Co-Compiler (was a pre-compiler) that strips out
the SQL and creates the DBRM (basically a a special SQL procedure).
It is the Bind that processes the DBRM (SQL) and creates DB2 access plans
This may seem long winded after java etc. But there are some advantages
The SQL is processed ahead of time and not while the program is running
You can check the DB2 access path at any time - Before / after execution. Useful for
analysing performance issues.
The same DB2 access paths are used from one run to the next. This leads to
fairly predictable run times.
I am developing a winforms application in Vb.net
when i try to add a tableadapter to an existing dataset I am receiving the error:
Failed to open a connection to the database.
"An attempt to attach an auto-named database for file ###Filelocation### failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share." Check the connection and try again.
This same dataset has 2 other tableadapters using the same dataconnection (as I am selecting the already existing dataconnection) which work fine
this connection is using application connection strings:
Data Source=(LocalDB)\v11.0;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\test.mdf;Integrated
server=localhost;user id=root;password=password;database=testuser;persistsecurityinfo=True
this error pops up every time I select the dataconnector on the first window that pops up.
Why is this happening
additional info:
The other 2 tableadapters were added to this dataset using a different computer
this is for a mysql connection
I found this post on the MSDN forum:
An attempt to attach an auto-named database ....\aspnetdb.mdf failed
One of the suggestions is as Mr. DonBoitnott correctly says, add User Instance=True;. But, there's also another suggestion posted by Luke A.
"For the record, not one single error message given to me during the course of trying to fix this was relevant to the actual problem. Upon first receiving "An attempt to attached an auto-named database..." I looked online for every suggestion I could find: use an absolute path to the MDF, reorder TCP/IP and named pipes in the server configuration, disable/enable UserInstance (depending on where you looked), change security settings, reconfigure authentication, give specific login credentials.
None of these worked. All of these led to different vague/ambiguous error messages, which led to another problem which required a solution which led back to the original error message... an endless loop of problems, completely unrelated to what was actually wrong.
_Also, posts about setting correct permissions on the App_Data folder are deceptive, as they imply the default permissions were not sufficient for SQL Express (in fact, they are). The whole point of this VS environment is that you can develop a web application and plop it right onto an IIS/SQLExpress setup and have it work. This makes the applications more portable (within IIS, of course) and secure. Of course, everything configuration-related has been obfuscated enough to make it several orders of magnitude more difficult than it has to be."_
So: Try prepend Initial Catalog=uniquenamehere to your connection string.
Though he says "... where 'uniquenamehere' is some name for your project.", try replacing uniquenamehere with the actual name of the database where the table exists.
the file is a .mdf file so it is a mssql file
my guess would be that as you stated you are using mysql the connection string has to be a tad different and therefore the Dataset can't connect to Mysql
Try adding User Instance=True; to the connection string.
I got the following SQLException: "invalid options in all7"
Upon googling the error message, the ONLY hits I saw were Oracle error lists which pinpointed the error at "ORA-17432: invalid options in all7". Sadly, googling for the error # brought up only combined lists with no explanation for the error, aside from this page that said "A TTC Error Message" as the entire explanation.
The error happens when a Java program retrieves data from a prepared statement call executing a procedure that returns a fairly large, but not unreasonable, # of rows via a cursor.
I can add the stack trace from the exception as well as condensed code, but I assume that's not terribly relevant to figuring out what "ORA-17432: invalid options in all7" means.
Context:
Error seemed to have appeared when the Java program was migrated from Oracle 9 OCI to Oracle 10.2 thin client. The procedure, when run directly against database (via Toad) works perfectly fine and returns the correct cursor with correct data and no errors.
This seems to be something data specific (result set size may be?) since running that same exact code against a different currency as a procedure parameter (which returns much smaller resultset) works 100% fine.
This is almost certainly not something you're going to have control of. It looks like a problem with the way your thin driver is using the two-task common (TTC) protocol. One thing to note is that this sort of thing can be very sensitive to the version of the driver you are using. Make absolutely certain that you have the latest version of the JDBC driver for the combination of the version of Java you're using and the version of Oracle on the server.
Akohchi - you were in the right area though not quite correct. The explanation obtained via Oracle Support call was that this version of Java (1.3) was not compatible with new Oracle. Java 1.4 fixed the issue.