I have a master table in sql server 2012 that consists of two types.
These are the critical columns I have in my master table:
TYPE CATEGORYGROUP CREDITORNAME DEBITORNAME
One of those two types (Type B) doesn't have a CategoryGroup assigned to it (so it's always null).
Type A always has a CategoryGroup and Debitor.
Type B always has a Creditor but no CategoryGroup.
For creditor and debitor I have two extra tables that also hold the CategoryGroup but for my task I only need the table for creditors since I already have the right value for type A (debitors).
So my goal is to look-up the CategoryGroup in the creditor table based on the creditor name and ideally put those CategoryGroup values in my master table.
With "put" I'm not sure if a view should be generated or actually put the data in the table which contains about 1.5 million records and keeps on growing.
There's also a "cluster table" that uses the CategoryGroup as a key field. But this isn't part of my problem here.
Please have a look at my sample fiddle
Hope you can help me.
Thank you.
If I understand you correctly, you can simply do a join to find the correct value, and update MainData with that value;
You can either use a common table expression...
WITH cte AS (
SELECT a.*, b.categorygroup cg
FROM MainData a
JOIN CreditorList b
ON a.creditorname = b.creditorname
)
UPDATE cte SET categorygroup=cg;
An SQLfiddle to test with.
...or an UPDATE/JOIN;
UPDATE m
SET m.categorygroup = c.categorygroup
FROM maindata m
JOIN creditorlist c
ON m.creditorname = c.creditorname;
Another SQLfiddle.
...and always remember to test before running potentially destructive SQL from random people on the Internet on your production data.
EDIT: To just see the date in the same format without doing the update, you can use;
SELECT
a.type, COALESCE(a.categorygroup, b.categorygroup) categorygroup,
a.creditorname, a.debitorname
FROM MainData a
LEFT JOIN CreditorList b
ON a.creditorname = b.creditorname
Yet another SQLfiddle.
Couldn't you just do:
update maindata
set categorygroup = (
select top 1 categorygroup
from creditorlist
where creditorname = maindata.creditorname)
where creditorname is not null
and categorygroup is null
?
Try this -
update m
set m.CategoryGroup = cl.CategoryGroup
-- select m.creditorName,
-- m.CategoryGroup as Dest,
-- cl.CategoryGroup as Src
from maindata as m
left join creditorlist as cl
on m.creditorName = cl.creditorName
where m.creditorName is not null
Before you update, you can check the results of the query by uncommenting the update statement and removing the updates.
Related
My update query checks whether the column “Houses” is null in any of the rows in my source table by joining the id between the target & source table (check query one). The column Houses being null in this case indicates that the row has expired; thus, I need to expire the row id in my target table and set the expired date. The query works fine, but I was wondering if it can be improved; I'm new to SQL, so I don't know if using two joins is the best way to accomplish the result I want. My update query will later be used against millions of rows. No columns has been indexed yet.
Query:
(Query one)
Update t
set valid_date = GETDATE()
From Target T
JOIN SOURCE S ON S.ID = T.ID
LEFT JOIN SOURCE S2 ON S2.Houses = t.Houses
WHERE S2.Houses is null
Target:
ID
namn
middlename
Houses
date
1
demo
hello
2
null
2
demo2
test
4
null
3
demo3
test1
5
null
Source:
ID
namn
middlename
Houses
1
demo
hello
null
3
demo
world
null
Expected output after running update query :
ID
namn
middlename
Houses
date
1
demo
hello
2
2022-12-06
2
demo2
test
4
null
3
demo3
test1
5
2022-12-06
I would recommend exists:
update t
set valid_date = getdate()
from target t
where exists (select 1 from source s where s.id = t.id and s.houses is null)
Note that your original query does not exactly do what you want. It cannot distinguish source rows that do not exist from source rows that exist and whose houses column is null. In your example, it would update row 2, which is not what you seem to want. You would need an INNER JOIN instead of the LEFT JOIN.
With EXISTS, you want an index on source(id, houses) so the subquery can execute efficiently against target rows. This index is probably worthwhile for the the JOIN as well.
I don't see why you'd need to join on the column houses at all.
Find all rows in source that have value NULL in the column houses.
Then update all rows in target that have the IDs of the source rows.
I prefer to write these kind of complex updates using CTEs. It looks more readable to me.
WITH
CTE
AS
(
SELECT
Target.ID
,Target.Date
FROM
Source
INNER JOIN Target ON Target.ID = Source.ID
WHERE Source.Houses IS NULL
)
UPDATE CTE
SET Date = GETDATE();
To efficiently find rows in source that have value NULL in the column houses you should create an index, something like this:
CREATE INDEX IX_Houses ON Source
(
Houses
);
I assume that ID is a primary key with a clustered unique index, so ID would be included in the IX_Houses index implicitly.
I have two tables, playgrounds and maintenance, which are linked with a foreign key. Whenever there is a maintenance on a playground, it will be saved in the table and connected to the respective playground.
Table A (playgrounds):
playground_number
Table B (maintenance):
playground_number (foreign key),
maintenance_type (3 different types),
date
What I now want is to retrieve all the playgrounds on which a certain type of maintenance has NOT been performed yet IN a certain year. For instance all playgrounds that do not have a maintenance_type = 1 in the year 2022 connected yet, although there could be multiple other maintenance_types because they are more frequent.
This is what I have tried (pseudo):
SELECT DISTINCT A.playground_number
FROM table A
JOIN table B ON A.playground_number = B.playground_number (FK)
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT B.maintenance_type FROM table B
WHERE B.maintenance_type = 1 AND year(B.date) = 2022
However this will return nothing as soon as there is only one entry with maintenance_type 1 within the table.
I am struggling with this query for a while, so would appreciate some thoughts :) Many thanks.
You need to correlate the exists subquery to the outer B table. Also, you don't even need the join.
SELECT DISTINCT a.playground_number
FROM table_a a
WHERE NOT EXISTS (
SELECT 1
FROM table_b b
WHERE b.playground_number = a.playground_number AND
b.maintenance_type = 1 AND
YEAR(b.date) = 2022
);
Please consider this. I don't think you need JOIN.
SELECT DISTINCT A.playground_number
FROM table A
WHERE A.playground_number NOT IN (SELECT B.playground_number FROM table B
WHERE B.maintenance_type = 1 AND year(B.date) = 2022)
Please let me know if I understand it incorrectly.
There are two tables Table A and Table B. These contains the same columns cost and item. The Table B contains the list of items and their corresponding costs whereas the Table A contains only the list of items.
Now we need to check the items of Table A, if they are present in the Table B then the corresponging item cost should be assigned to the item's cost in Table A.
Can someone help me out by writing a query for this.
Consider the tables as shown:
Table A:
item cost
-------------
pen null
book null
watch null
Table B:
item cost
-------------
watch 1000
book 50
Expected output
Table A:
item cost
pen 0
book 50
watch 1000
Just add a foreign key (primary key of table A) in the Table B as you can say table A ID then add a join(right join may be) in the query to get or assign the prices respective items.
join be like
SELECT item, cost
FROM tablename a
RIGHT JOIN tablename b ON a.item= b.item;
Edit:
Just edit this table name ,now run it.
I would structure the update like this:
with cost_data as (
select
item,
max (cost) filter (where item = 'watch') as watch,
max (cost) filter (where item = 'book') as book
from table_b
group by item
)
update table_a a
set
watch = c.watch,
book = c.book
from cost_data c
where
a.item = c.item and
(a.watch is distinct from c.watch or
a.book is distinct from c.book)
In essence, I am doing a common table expression to do a poor man's pivot table on the Table B to get the rows into columns. One caveat here -- if there are multiple costs listed for the same item, this may not do what you want, but then you would need to know how to handle that in almost any case.
Then I am doing an "update A from B" against the CTE.
The last part is not critical, per se, but it is helpful -- to limit the query to only execute on rows that need to change. It's best to limit DML if it doesn't need to occur (the best way to optimize something is to not do it).
There are plenty of ways you could do this, if you are taking table b to be the one containing the price then a left outer join would do the trick.
SELECT
table_a.item,
CASE
WHEN table_b.cost IS NULL
THEN 0
ELSE table_b.cost
END as cost
FROM table_a
LEFT OUTER JOIN table_b ON table_a.item = table_b.item
The result also appears to suggest that pen which is not in table b should have a price of 0 (this is bad practice) but for the sake of returning the desired result you will want a case statement to assign a value if it is null.
In order to update the table, as per the comment
update table_a set cost = some_alias.cost
from (
SELECT
table_a.item,
CASE
WHEN table_b.cost IS NULL
THEN 0
ELSE table_b.cost
END as cost
FROM table_a
LEFT OUTER JOIN table_b ON table_a.item = table_b.item
) some_alias
where table_a.item = some_alias.item
I am new to SQL and I would like to get some insights for my problem
I am using the following query,
select id,
pid
from assoc
where id in (100422, 100414, 100421, 100419, 100423)
All these id need not have pid, some doesn't and some has pid. Currently it skips the records which doesn't have pid.
I would like a way which would show the results as below.
pid id
-----------
703 100422
313 100414
465 100421
null 100419
null 100423
Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!
Oh, I think I've got the idea: you have to enumerate all the ids and corresponding pids. If there's no corresponding pid, put null (kind of outer join). If it's your case, then Oracle solution can be:
with
-- dummy: required ids
dummy as (
select 100422 as id from dual
union all select 100414 as id from dual
union all select 100421 as id from dual
union all select 100419 as id from dual
union all select 100423 as id from dual),
-- main: actual data we have
main as (
select id,
pid
from assoc
-- you may put "id in (select d.id from dummy d)"
where id in (100422, 100414, 100421, 100419, 100423))
-- we want to print out either existing main.pid or null
select main.pid as pid,
dummy.id as id
from dummy left join main on dummy.id = main.id
id is obtained from other table and assoc only has pid associated with id.
The assoc table seems to be the association table used to implement a many-to-many relationship between two entities in a relational database.
It contains entries only for the entities from one table that are in relationship with entities from the other table. It doesn't contain information about the entities that are not in a relationship and some of the results you want to get come from entities that are not in a relationship.
The solution for your problem is to RIGHT JOIN the table where the column id comes from and put the WHERE condition against the values retrieved from the original table (because it contains the rows you need). The RIGHT JOIN ensures all the matching rows from the right side table are included in the result set, even when they do not have matching rows in the left side table.
Assuming the table where the id column comes from is named table1, the query you need is:
SELECT assoc.id, assoc.pid
FROM assoc
RIGHT JOIN table1 ON assoc.id = table1.id
WHERE table1.id IN (100422, 100414, 100421, 100419, 100423)
I have one table named: ORDERS
this table contains OrderNumber's which belong to the same person and same address lines for that person.
However sometimes the data is inconsistent;
as example looking at the table screenshot: Orders table with bad data to fix -
you all can noticed that orderNumber 1 has a name associated to and addresses line1-2-3-4. sometimes those are all different by some character or even null.
my goal is to update all those 3 lines with one set of data that is already there and set equally all the 3 rows.
to make more clear the result expected should be like this:
enter image description here
i am currently using a MERGE statement to avoid a CURSOR (for loop )
but i am having problems to make it work
here the SQL
MERGE INTO ORDERS O USING
(SELECT
INNER.ORDERNUMBER,
INNER.NAME,
INNER.LINE1,
INNER.LINE2,
INNER.LINE3,
INNER.LINE4
FROM ORDERS INNER
) TEMP
ON( O.ORDERNUMBER = TEMP.ORDERNUMBER )
WHEN MATCHED THEN
UPDATE
SET
O.NAME = TEMP.NAME,
O.LINE1 = TEMP.LINE1,
O.LINE2 = TEMP.LINE2,
O.LINE3 = TEMP.LINE3,
O.LINE4 = TEMP.LINE4;
the biggest issues i am facing is to pick a single row out of the 3 randomly - it does not matter whihc of the data - row i pick to update the line/s
as long i make the records exaclty the same for an order number.
i also used ROWNUM =1 but it in multip[le updates will only output one row and update maybe thousand of lines with the same address and name whihch belong to an order number.
order number is the join column to use ...
kind regards
A simple correlated subquery in an update statement should work:
update orders t1
set (t1.name, t1.line1, t1.line2, t1.line3, t1.line4) =
(select t2.name, t2.line1, t2.line2, t2.line3, t2.line4
from orders t2
where t2.OrderNumber = t1.OrderNumber
and rownum < 2)