DB2 locking when no record yet exists - sql

I have a table, something like:
create table state {foo int not null, bar int not null, baz varchar(32)};
create unique index on state(foo,bar);
I'd like to lock for a unique record in this table. However, if there's no existing record I'd like to prevent anyone else from inserting a record, but without inserting myself.
I'd use "FOR UPDATE WITH RS USE AND KEEP EXCLUSIVE LOCKS" but that only seems to work if the record exists.

A) You can let DB2 create every ID number. Let's say you have defined your Customer table
CREATE TABLE Customers
( CustomerID Int NOT NULL
GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY
PRIMARY KEY
, Name Varchar(50)
, Billing_Type Char(1)
, Balance Dec(9,2) NOT NULL DEFAULT
);
Insert rows without specifying the CustomerID, since DB2 will always produce the value for you.
INSERT INTO Customers
(Name, Billing_Type)
VALUES
(:cname, :billtype);
If you need to know what the last value assigned in your session was, you can then use the IDENTITY_VAL_LOCAL() function.
B) In my environment, I generally specify GENERATED BY DEFAULT. This is in part due to the nature of our principle programming language, ILE RPG-IV, where developers have traditionally to allowed the compiler to use the entire record definition. This leads me to I can tell everyone to use a sequence to generate ID values for a given table or set of tables.

You can grant select to only you, but if there are others with secadm or other privileges, they could insert.
You can do something with a trigger, something like check the current session, and if the user is your user, then it inserts the row.
if (SESSION_USER <> 'Alex) then
rollback -- or generate an exception
end if;
It seems that you also want to keep just one row, then, you can control that also in a trigger:
select count(0) into value from state
if (value > 1) then
rollback -- or generate an exception
end if;

Related

SQL Server trigger thinks there's a duplicate in the table when there isn't

I'm a new SQL developer. After recommendations I have altered my trigger (for this task I need to use a trigger so can't avoid it), but I have re-altered my trigger. I want it to prevent a duplication in the Rentals table of the BikeID foreign key contained within it.
This is my code at the moment:
CREATE TRIGGER BikeNotAvailable
ON dbo.SA_Rental
AFTER INSERT
AS
IF EXISTS (SELECT *
FROM SA_Rental
INNER JOIN inserted i ON i.BikeID = dbo.SA_Rental.BikeID)
BEGIN
ROLLBACK
RAISERROR ('This bike is already being hired', 16, 1);
END
go
But when I enter the BikeID in the Rentals table, even though the BikeID is not present inside a row yet, it still raises the error - why? (I have also tested this on an empty table and it still raises the error)
Just some context on my data, the BikeID is a primary key from the 'Bike' table that is shared as a foreign key to the Rentals table, not sure if this has anything to do with the error.
Can someone please help me fix this trigger so it works.
Thanks.
Well, as it's an AFTER trigger, the trigger is run after the new record is added to the table (at least visible for your trigger).
Supposing that your table has an automatically generated ID column, you should exclude the inserted row from your check like this:
CREATE TRIGGER BikeNotAvailable ON dbo.SA_Rental
AFTER INSERT
AS
if exists ( select * from SA_Rental
inner join inserted i on i.BikeID=dbo.SA_Rental.BikeID
where SA_Rental.RentalID <> i.RentalID)
begin
rollback
RAISERROR ('This bike is already being hired', 16, 1);
end
go
A far simpler way to achieve what you are after is to create a unique index:
CREATE UNIQUE INDEX BikeRented ON SA_Rental (BikeID);
This, of course, assumes that you delete the row from your table when the bike is no longer rented (as this is the implied logic in your post). If this is not the case, then we need more detail; what specifies on your table that the rental has completed?
If we assume you have a return date, and the return date is NULL when the bike is yet to be returned, then you would use a filtered index like so:
CREATE UNIQUE INDEX BikeRented ON SA_Rental (BikeID)
WHERE ReturnedDate IS NULL;

Inserting new rows and generate a new id based on the current last row

The primary key of my table is an Identity column of an ID. I want to be able to insert a new row and have it know what the last ID in the table currently is and add one to it. I know I can use Scope Identity to get the last inserted column from my code, but I am worried about people manually adding entries in the database, because they do this quite often. Is there a way I can look at the last ID in the table and not just the last ID my code inserted?
With a SQL Identity column, you don't need to do anything special. This is the default behavior. SQL Server will handle making sure you don't have collisions regardless of where the inserts come from.
The ##Identity will pull the latest identity, and scope_identity will grab the identity from the current scope.
A scope is a module: a stored procedure, trigger, function, or batch. Therefore, if two statements are in the same stored procedure, function, or batch, they are in the same scope.
If you don't want to allow manual entries to the primary column, then you can add Identity constraint to it along with primary key constraint.
Example, while creating a table,
CREATE Table t_Temp(RowID Int Primary Key Identity(1,1), Name Varchar(50))
INSERT Into t_Temp values ('UserName')
INSERT Into t_Temp values ('UserName1')
SELECT * from t_Temp
You can query the table and get the next available code in one SQL query:
SELECT COALESCE(MAX(CAST("RowID" AS INT)),0) +1 as 'NextRowID' from <tableName>
The "0" here is a default, meaning if there are no rows found, the first code returned would be (0+1) =1
Generally I have 999 instead of the 0 as I like my RowID/primary key etc. to start at 1000.

SQL Server Unique Composite Key of Two Field With Second Field Auto-Increment

I have the following problem, I want to have Composite Primary Key like:
PRIMARY KEY (`base`, `id`);
for which when I insert a base the id to be auto-incremented based on the previous id for the same base
Example:
base id
A 1
A 2
B 1
C 1
Is there a way when I say:
INSERT INTO table(base) VALUES ('A')
to insert a new record with id 3 because that is the next id for base 'A'?
The resulting table should be:
base id
A 1
A 2
B 1
C 1
A 3
Is it possible to do it on the DB exactly since if done programmatically it could cause racing conditions.
EDIT
The base currently represents a company, the id represents invoice number. There should be auto-incrementing invoice numbers for each company but there could be cases where two companies have invoices with the same number. Users logged with a company should be able to sort, filter and search by those invoice numbers.
Ever since someone posted a similar question, I've been pondering this. The first problem is that DBs don't provide "partitionable" sequences (that would restart/remember based on different keys). The second is that the SEQUENCE objects that are provided are geared around fast access, and can't be rolled back (ie, you will get gaps). This essentially this rules out using a built-in utility... meaning we have to roll our own.
The first thing we're going to need is a table to store our sequence numbers. This can be fairly simple:
CREATE TABLE Invoice_Sequence (base CHAR(1) PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED,
invoiceNumber INTEGER);
In reality the base column should be a foreign-key reference to whatever table/id defines the business(es)/entities you're issuing invoices for. In this table, you want entries to be unique per issued-entity.
Next, you want a stored proc that will take a key (base) and spit out the next number in the sequence (invoiceNumber). The set of keys necessary will vary (ie, some invoice numbers must contain the year or full date of issue), but the base form for this situation is as follows:
CREATE PROCEDURE Next_Invoice_Number #baseKey CHAR(1),
#invoiceNumber INTEGER OUTPUT
AS MERGE INTO Invoice_Sequence Stored
USING (VALUES (#baseKey)) Incoming(base)
ON Incoming.base = Stored.base
WHEN MATCHED THEN UPDATE SET Stored.invoiceNumber = Stored.invoiceNumber + 1
WHEN NOT MATCHED BY TARGET THEN INSERT (base) VALUES(#baseKey)
OUTPUT INSERTED.invoiceNumber ;;
Note that:
You must run this in a serialized transaction
The transaction must be the same one that's inserting into the destination (invoice) table.
That's right, you'll still get blocking per-business when issuing invoice numbers. You can't avoid this if invoice numbers must be sequential, with no gaps - until the row is actually committed, it might be rolled back, meaning that the invoice number wouldn't have been issued.
Now, since you don't want to have to remember to call the procedure for the entry, wrap it up in a trigger:
CREATE TRIGGER Populate_Invoice_Number ON Invoice INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
DECLARE #invoiceNumber INTEGER
BEGIN
EXEC Next_Invoice_Number Inserted.base, #invoiceNumber OUTPUT
INSERT INTO Invoice (base, invoiceNumber)
VALUES (Inserted.base, #invoiceNumber)
END
(obviously, you have more columns, including others that should be auto-populated - you'll need to fill them in)
...which you can then use by simply saying:
INSERT INTO Invoice (base) VALUES('A');
So what have we done? Mostly, all this work was about shrinking the number of rows locked by a transaction. Until this INSERT is committed, there are only two rows locked:
The row in Invoice_Sequence maintaining the sequence number
The row in Invoice for the new invoice.
All other rows for a particular base are free - they can be updated or queried at will (deleting information out of this kind of system tends to make accountants nervous). You probably need to decide what should happen when queries would normally include the pending invoice...
you can use the trigger for before insert and assign the next value by taking the max(id) with "base" filter which is "A" in this case.
That will give you the max(id) value as 2 and than increment it by max(id)+1. now push the new value to the "id" field. before insert.
I think this may help you
MSSQL Triggers: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-in/library/ms189799.aspx
Test Table
CREATE TABLE MyTable
( base CHAR(1),
id INT
)
GO
Trigger Definition
CREATE TRIGGER dbo.tr_Populate_ID
ON dbo.MyTable
INSTEAD OF INSERT
AS
BEGIN
SET NOCOUNT ON;
INSERT INTO MyTable (base,id)
SELECT i.base, ISNULL(MAX(mt.id),0) +1 AS NextValue
FROM inserted i left join MyTable mt
on i.base = mt.base
GROUP BY i.base
END
Test
Execute the following statement multiple times and you will see the next values available in that group will be assigned to ID.
INSERT INTO MyTable VALUES
('A'),
('B'),
('C')
GO
SELECT * FROM MyTable
GO

Do databases always lock non-existent rows after a query or update?

Given:
customer[id BIGINT AUTO_INCREMENT PRIMARY KEY, email VARCHAR(30), count INT]
I'd like to execute the following atomically: Update the customer if he already exists; otherwise, insert a new customer.
In theory this sounds like a perfect fit for SQL-MERGE but the database I am using doesn't support MERGE with AUTO_INCREMENT columns.
https://stackoverflow.com/a/1727788/14731 seems to indicate that if you execute a query or update statement against a non-existent row, the database will lock the index thereby preventing concurrent inserts.
Is this behavior guaranteed by the SQL standard? Are there any databases that do not behave this way?
UPDATE: Sorry, I should have mentioned this earlier: the solution must use READ_COMMITTED transaction isolation unless that is impossible in which case I will accept the use of SERIALIZABLE.
This question is asked about once a week on SO, and the answers are almost invariably wrong.
Here's the right one.
insert customer (email, count)
select 'foo#example.com', 0
where not exists (
select 1 from customer
where email = 'foo#example.com'
)
update customer set count = count + 1
where email = 'foo#example.com'
If you like, you can insert a count of 1 and skip the update if the inserted rowcount -- however expressed in your DBMS -- returns 1.
The above syntax is absolutely standard and makes no assumption about locking mechanisms or isolation levels. If it doesn't work, your DBMS is broken.
Many people are under the mistaken impression that the select executes "first" and thus introduces a race condition. No: that select is part of the insert. The insert is atomic. There is no race.
Use Russell Fox's code but use SERIALIZABLE isolation. This will take a range lock so that the non-existing row is logically locked (together with all other non-existing rows in the surrounding key range).
So it looks like this:
BEGIN TRAN
IF EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM foo WITH (UPDLOCK, HOLDLOCK) WHERE [email] = 'thisemail')
BEGIN
UPDATE foo...
END
ELSE
BEGIN
INSERT INTO foo...
END
COMMIT
Most code taken from his answer, but fixed to provided mutual exclusion semantics.
Answering my own question since there seems to be a lot of confusion around the topic. It seems that:
-- BAD! DO NOT DO THIS! --
insert customer (email, count)
select 'foo#example.com', 0
where not exists (
select 1 from customer
where email = 'foo#example.com'
)
is open to race-conditions (see Only inserting a row if it's not already there). From what I've been able to gather, the only portable solution to this problem:
Pick a key to merge against. This could be the primary key, or another unique key, but it must have a unique constraint.
Try to insert a new row. You must catch the error that will occur if the row already exists.
The hard part is over. At this point, the row is guaranteed to exist and you are protected from race-conditions by the fact that you are holding a write-lock on it (due to the insert from the previous step).
Go ahead and update if needed or select its primary key.
IF EXISTS (SELECT 1 FROM foo WHERE [email] = 'thisemail')
BEGIN
UPDATE foo...
END
ELSE
BEGIN
INSERT INTO foo...
END

Share auto-incremented primary key between two tables

Hi I want to have two tables each have an INT "id" column which will auto-increment but I don't want either "id" columns to ever share the same number. What is this called and what's the best way to do it? Sequence? Iterator? Index? Incrementor?
Motivation: we're migrating from one schema to a another and have a web-page that reads both tables and shows the (int) ID, but I can't have the same ID used for both tables.
I'm using SQL Server 9.0.3068.
Thanks!
Just configure the identity increment to be >1 e.g. table one uses IDENTITY (1, 10) [1,11,21...] and table two uses IDENTITY (2, 10) [2,12,22...]. This will also give you some room for expansion if needed later.
I think using a GUID would be the most straightforward way, if I understand you correctly.
SELECT NEWID()
Use a column with GUID (Globally Unique Identifier) type. It's 16 byte and will be always unique for each row.
Just be aware that you'll get a significant performance hit comparing to normal integer keys.
Use another table with an ID key of type int default it to 1, called KeyID or whatever.
Have a stored procedure retrieve the value, add 1, then update the KeyID, then return this to the stored procedure which is updating your two tables which needs the new unique key.
This will ensure the ID is an int, and that it's unique between the set of tables which are using the stored procedure to generate new ID's.
You can define an IDENTITY column in a third table, use that to generate ID values, but you always roll back any inserts you make into the table (to avoid making it grow). Rolling back the transaction doesn't roll back the fact that the ID was generated.
I'm not a regular user of Microsoft SQL Server, so please forgive any syntax gaffes. But something like the following is what I have in mind:
CREATE TABLE AlwaysRollback (
id IDENTITY(1,1)
);
BEGIN TRANSACTION;
INSERT INTO AllwaysRollBack () VALUES ();
ROLLBACK TRANSACTION;
INSERT INTO RealTable1 (id, ...) VALUES (SCOPE_IDENTITY(), ...);
BEGIN TRANSACTION;
INSERT INTO AllwaysRollBack () VALUES ();
ROLLBACK TRANSACTION;
INSERT INTO RealTable2 (id, ...) VALUES (SCOPE_IDENTITY(), ...);
I don't know what you would call it.
If you don't want to use a GUID or a separate table, you could also create a function that looked at the max values of the ids from both tables and added one to the that value (or something like that).
You could then call that function in an insert trigger on both tables.
I am personally a fan of the GUID solution, but here is a viable option.
Many solutions to this problem have avoided GUID and used good old integer. This is common also with merge replication situations where many satellite sites merge with a master and key conflicts need to be avoided.
If GUID will not work for you, and you absolutely must have int, bigint, or the like, you can always just use an IDENTITY column and have each table with a different value for SEED. Those datatypes have a very wide range, and it is not too hard to split the range into usable segments, especially if all you want is two splits. As an example, basic int has a range from -2^31 (-2,147,483,648) through 2^31 - 1 (2,147,483,647). This is more than enough for a customer table, for example.
Transact-SQL Reference (SQL Server 2000)
int, bigint, smallint, and tinyint
Example:
--Create table with a seed of 1 billion and an increment of 1
CREATE TABLE myTable
(
primaryKey int IDENTITY (1000000000, 1),
columnOne varchar(10) NOT NULL
)
If you really need to do this with an int and you have an auto incrementing number, the way i have done this before is to change the id field auto increment function to the sequence of the other table. I am not too sure in ms sql or my sql but in pgsql that means that in the sql you would have this field
id integer NOT NULL DEFAULT nextval('table_two_seq'::regclass),
where table_two_sequence is the sequence function for the other table. Then test it out by inserting some data. I am really sorry if this wont work in ms sql i try to steer clear of it tbh. Failing that the GUID is the best way as has been mentioned by others. Or when inserting in the code that you use you could put an algorithm in that but it could get messy.
Alternatively, think about having the data in one table as this would be a way around it. if you need to you could have a view simulating two tables. Just a thought.
Hope i have helped
Starting with SQL Server 2012 you can declare a sequence object
https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff878091.aspx which is exactly what you need.
I should be pretty trivial to emulate a sequence object with a table
containing the next sequence value and a stored procedure atomically
select the value and increment. [You'd liked to use function, but functions
can't have side effects.]
How about this hack? Create a table (MySequence) with two columns: And Identity column (SequenceValue) and a dummy column (DummyValue) and use this stored procedure to get a new sequence value. The only row in the table will be last sequence value retrieved.
CREATE PROCEDURE GetNextValue
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #value int = null;
-- Insert statements for procedure here
INSERT into MySequence (DummyValue) Values (null);
SET #value = SCOPE_IDENTITY();
DELETE from MySequence where SequenceValue <> #value
SELECT #value as Sequence
return #value
END
To use the sequence you'd have to manage the inserts to the target tables--a trigger would probably work.