I'm trying to use set up a database for a school project, and I'm using triggers to set up referential integrity for one table. I have a table, Addresses, which stores the address for People, Studios, and Directors. Then I have a table called Address Reference. This table points to the Address table, and it has a two fields, the ReferenceID and the TableName to show which table and row this address is for. I have a Constraint so TableName will always be valid.
I'm trying to set up a trigger to make sure any rows inserted are valid, which I can do, I'm just trying to improve it. My code would look like this:
SELECT *
FROM inserted
WHERE ReferenceID IN
(SELECT PersonID
FROM inserted.TableName)
However I found I needed to use dynamic sql. So I was thinking something like this:
SELECT *
FROM inserted
WHERE ReferenceID IN
(EXEC('SELECT PersonID FROM' + inserted.TableName))
Which didn't work, even when I removed the exec.
I'm doing this in SQL Server Management Studio With SQL Server 11.0.3128
Let me know if you need any more information. I've looked around, and I haven't found any answers to this question that work.
This is a poor way to maintain referential integrity. There are a number of ways you could approach this.
The first would be to have an address table, then multiple tables to contain the links, e.g.
CREATE TABLE StudioAddress
( StudioID INT NOT NULL,
AddressID INT NOT NULL,
CONSTRAINT PK_StudioAddress__StudioID_AddressID PRIMARY KEY (StudioID, AddressID),
CONSTRAINT FK_StudioAddress__StudioID FOREIGN KEY (StudioID) REFERENCES Studio (StudioID),
CONSTRAINT FK_StudioAddress__AddressID FOREIGN KEY (AddressID) REFERENCES Address (AddressID)
);
This maintains your referenctial integrity without needing triggers, and still caters for a 1 to many relationship.
Another option would be to have 3 nullable columns in your address table (StudioID, PersonID, DirectorID), each with a foreign key to the relevant table, you can the add a check constraint to ensure only one of the 3 fields is populated (if this is required).
I much prefer the first option though, it is much cleaner, and also allows for the same address to be used for multiple things.
ADENDUM
If this has to be done using triggers, then I think you would need to use something like this:
IF EXISTS( SELECT 1
FROM inserted i
WHERE NOT EXISTS
( SELECT 1
FROM People p
WHERE p.PersonID = i.ReferenceID
AND i.TableName = 'People'
UNION ALL
SELECT 1
FROM Studios s
WHERE s.StudioID = i.ReferenceID
AND i.TableName = 'Studios'
UNION ALL
SELECT 1
FROM Directors d
WHERE d.DirectorID = i.ReferenceID
AND i.TableName = 'Directors'
)
)
BEGIN
ROLLBACK TRANSACTION;
RAISERROR('Referential integrity error', 16, 1);
END
This essentially checks that for all inserted/updated rows a record exists with the relevant ID in the relevant table.
I still stand by my earlier answer though, that this is a terrible approach, and I would question any syllabus this is on!
Related
I want to add another row in my existing table and I'm a bit hesitant if I'm doing the right thing because it might skew the database. I have my script below and would like to hear your thoughts about it.
I want to add another row for 'Jane' in the table, which will be 'SKATING" in the ACT column.
Table: [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
My script is:
INSERT INTO [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
([ENTITY],[TYPE],[EMP_COD],[DATE],[LINE_NO],[ACT],[NAME])
VALUES
('REG','EMP','45233','2016-06-20 00:00:00:00','2','SKATING','JANE')
Will this do the trick?
Your statement looks ok. If the database has a problem with it (for example, due to a foreign key constraint violation), it will reject the statement.
If any of the fields in your table are numeric (and not varchar or char), just remove the quotes around the corresponding field. For example, if emp_cod and line_no are int, insert the following values instead:
('REG','EMP',45233,'2016-06-20 00:00:00:00',2,'SKATING','JANE')
Inserting records into a database has always been the most common reason why I've lost a lot of my hairs on my head!
SQL is great when it comes to SELECT or even UPDATEs but when it comes to INSERTs it's like someone from another planet came into the SQL standards commitee and managed to get their way of doing it implemented into the final SQL standard!
If your table does not have an automatic primary key that automatically gets generated on every insert, then you have to code it yourself to manage avoiding duplicates.
Start by writing a normal SELECT to see if the record(s) you're going to add don't already exist. But as Robert implied, your table may not have a primary key because it looks like a LOG table to me. So insert away!
If it does require to have a unique record everytime, then I strongly suggest you create a primary key for the table, either an auto generated one or a combination of your existing columns.
Assuming the first five combined columns make a unique key, this select will determine if your data you're inserting does not already exist...
SELECT COUNT(*) AS FoundRec FROM [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
WHERE [ENTITY] = wsEntity AND [TYPE] = wsType AND [EMP_COD] = wsEmpCod AND [DATE] = wsDate AND [LINE_NO] = wsLineno
The wsXXX declarations, you will have to replace them with direct values or have them DECLAREd earlier in your script.
If you ran this alone and recieved a value of 1 or more, then the data exists already in your table, at least those 5 first columns. A true duplicate test will require you to test EVERY column in your table, but it should give you an idea.
In the INSERT, to do it all as one statement, you can do this ...
INSERT INTO [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
([ENTITY],[TYPE],[EMP_COD],[DATE],[LINE_NO],[ACT],[NAME])
VALUES
('REG','EMP','45233','2016-06-20 00:00:00:00','2','SKATING','JANE')
WHERE (SELECT COUNT(*) AS FoundRec FROM [Emp_table].[ACT].[LIST_EMP]
WHERE [ENTITY] = wsEntity AND [TYPE] = wsType AND
[EMP_COD] = wsEmpCod AND [DATE] = wsDate AND
[LINE_NO] = wsLineno) = 0
Just replace the wsXXX variables with the values you want to insert.
I hope that made sense.
I have version logic in tables. So, each table contains 'is_deleted' and 'version' fields. ('version' field is referenced to single table with all versions)
table1(id, field1_1, field1_2, is_deleted, version[fk to versions.id])
table2(id, field2_1, field2_2, table1_id, is_deleted, version[fk to versions.id])
versions(id, main_version)
When I get records from db I use where clause for each of referenced table and for table itself. Something like:
SELECT * FROM table1 AS t1
WHERE (
(
(t1.id, t1."version") IN
(SELECT sub_t1.id, max(sub_t1."version") FROM table AS sub_t1 GROUP by sub_t1.id)
)
AND t1.is_deleted IS FALSE
)
For MySQL you can change condition for 'is_deleted' to
is_deleted = 0
Now, I'm adding new tables and I want to use foreign keys, but foreign key can reference only unique column, but id is not unique (it is kept through versions) and I can't use complex key, because new version created only when smth changed and only for that record.
Should I omit FK or should I add additional table with only one column id for each of versioned tables? Will adding such tables offer some benefit except for data integrity? Adding such tables will make logic more complicated.
So, should I live it untouched or make smth like this:
table1_ids(id)
table1_versions(id, table1_id[fk to table1_ids.id], ...)
table2_versions(id, ..., table1_id[fk to table1_ids.id],...)
table2_ids(id)
Can you rather create schema for every version ?
It will be much more clean solution.
Suppose I have Table A and Table B. Table B references Table A. I want to deep copy a set of rows in Table A and Table B. I want all of the new Table B rows to reference the new Table A rows.
Note that I'm not copying the rows into any other tables. The rows in table A will be copied into table A, and the rows in table B will be copied into table B.
How can I ensure that the foreign key references get readjusted as part of the copy?
To clarify, I'm trying to find a generic way to do this. The example I'm giving involves two tables, but in practice the dependency graph may be much more complicated. Even a generic way to dynamically generate SQL to do the work would be fine.
UPDATE:
People are asking why this is necessary, so I'll give some background. It may be way too much, but here goes:
I'm working with an old desktop application that's been moved to a client-server model. But, the application still uses a rudimentary in-house binary file format for storing data for its tables. A data file is just a header followed by a series of rows, each of which is just the binary serialized field values, the order of which is determined by a schema text file. The only thing good about it is that it's very fast. It's terrible in every other respect. I'm moving the application to SQL Server and trying not to degrade the performance too badly.
This is a kind of scheduling application; the data's not critical to anybody, and there's no audit tracking, etc. necessary. It's not a supermassive amount of data, and we don't necessarily need to keep very old data around if the database grows too large.
One feature that they are accustomed to is the ability to duplicate entire schedules in order to create "what-if" scenarios that they can muck with. Any user can do this as many times as they want, as often as they want. In the old database, the data files for each schedule are stored in their own data folder, identified by name. So, copying a schedule was as simple as copying the data folder and renaming it.
I must be able to do effectively the same thing with SQL Server or the migration will not work. Maybe you're thinking that I can just only copy the data that actually gets changed in order to avoid redundancy; but that honestly sounds too complicated to be feasible.
To throw another wrench into the mix, there can be a hierarchy of schedule data folders. So, a data folder may contain a data folder, which may contain a data folder. And the copying can occur at any level.
In SQL Server, I'm implementing a nested set hierarchy to mimic this. I have a DATA_SET table like this:
CREATE TABLE dbo.DATA_SET
(
DATA_SET_ID UNIQUEIDENTIFIER PRIMARY KEY,
NAME NVARCHAR(128) NOT NULL,
LFT INT NOT NULL,
RGT INT NOT NULL
)
So, there's a tree structure of data sets. Each data set represents a schedule, and may contain child data sets. Every row in every table has a DATA_SET_ID FK reference, indicating which data set it belongs to. Whenever I copy a data set, I copy all the rows in the table for that data set, and every other data set, into the same table, but referencing new data sets.
So, here's a simple concrete example:
CREATE TABLE FOO
(
FOO_ID BIGINT PRIMARY KEY,
DATA_SET_ID BIGINT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES DATA_SET(DATA_SET_ID) NOT NULL
)
CREATE TABLE BAR
(
BAR_ID BIGINT PRIMARY KEY,
DATA_SET_ID BIGINT FOREIGN KEY REFERENCES DATA_SET(DATA_SET_ID) NOT NULL,
FOO_ID UNIQUEIDENTIFIER PRIMARY KEY
)
INSERT INTO FOO
SELECT 1, 1 UNION ALL
SELECT 2, 1 UNION ALL
SELECT 3, 1 UNION ALL
INSERT INTO BAR
SELECT 1, 1, 1
SELECT 2, 1, 2
SELECT 3, 1, 3
So, let's say I copy data set 1 into a new data set of ID 2. After I copy, the tables will look like this:
FOO
FOO_ID, DATA_SET_ID
1 1
2 1
3 1
4 2
5 2
6 2
BAR
BAR_ID, DATA_SET_ID, FOO_ID
1 1 1
2 1 2
3 1 3
4 2 4
5 2 5
6 2 6
As you can see, the new BAR rows are referencing the new FOO rows. It's not the rewiring of the DATA_SET_ID's that I'm asking about. I'm asking about rewiring the foreign keys in general.
So, that was surely too much information, but there you go.
I'm sure there are a lot of concerns about performance with the idea of bulk copying the data like this. The tables are not going to be huge. I'm not expecting more than 1000 records in any table, and most of the tables will be much much smaller than that. Old data sets can be deleted outright with no repercussions.
Thanks,
Tedderz
Here is an example with three tables that can probably get you started.
DB schema
CREATE TABLE users
(user_id int auto_increment PRIMARY KEY,
user_name varchar(32));
CREATE TABLE agenda
(agenda_id int auto_increment PRIMARY KEY,
`user_id` int, `agenda_name` varchar(7));
CREATE TABLE events
(event_id int auto_increment PRIMARY KEY,
`agenda_id` int,
`event_name` varchar(8));
An SP to clone a user with his agenda and events records
DELIMITER $$
CREATE PROCEDURE clone_user(IN uid INT)
BEGIN
DECLARE last_user_id INT DEFAULT 0;
INSERT INTO users (user_name)
SELECT user_name
FROM users
WHERE user_id = uid;
SET last_user_id = LAST_INSERT_ID();
INSERT INTO agenda (user_id, agenda_name)
SELECT last_user_id, agenda_name
FROM agenda
WHERE user_id = uid;
INSERT INTO events (agenda_id, event_name)
SELECT a3.agenda_id_new, e.event_name
FROM events e JOIN
(SELECT a1.agenda_id agenda_id_old,
a2.agenda_id agenda_id_new
FROM
(SELECT agenda_id, #n := #n + 1 n
FROM agenda, (SELECT #n := 0) n
WHERE user_id = uid
ORDER BY agenda_id) a1 JOIN
(SELECT agenda_id, #m := #m + 1 m
FROM agenda, (SELECT #m := 0) m
WHERE user_id = last_user_id
ORDER BY agenda_id) a2 ON a1.n = a2.m) a3
ON e.agenda_id = a3.agenda_id_old;
END$$
DELIMITER ;
To clone a user
CALL clone_user(3);
Here is SQLFiddle demo.
I recently found myself needing to solve a similar problem; that is, I needed to copy a set of rows in a table (Table A) as well as all of the rows in related tables which have foreign keys pointing to Table A's primary key. I was using Postgres so the exact queries may differ but the overall approach is the same. The biggest benefit of this approach is that it can be used recursively to go infinitely deep
TLDR: the approach looks like this
1) find all the related table/columns of Table A
2) copy the necessary data into temporary tables
3) create a trigger and function to propagate primary key column
updates to related foreign keys columns in the temporary tables
4) update the primary key column in the temporary tables to the next
value in the auto increment sequence
5) Re-insert the data back into the source tables, and drop the
temporary tables/triggers/function
1) The first step is to query the information schema to find all of the tables and columns which are referencing Table A. In Postgres this might look like the following:
SELECT tc.table_name, kcu.column_name
FROM information_schema.table_constraints tc
JOIN information_schema.key_column_usage kcu
ON tc.constraint_name = kcu.constraint_name
JOIN information_schema.constraint_column_usage ccu
ON ccu.constraint_name = tc.constraint_name
WHERE constraint_type = 'FOREIGN KEY'
AND ccu.table_name='<Table A>'
AND ccu.column_name='<Primary Key>'
2) Next we need to copy the data from Table A, and any other tables which reference Table A - lets say there is one called Table B. To start this process, lets create a temporary table for each of these tables and we will populate it with the data that we need to copy. This might look like the following:
CREATE TEMP TABLE temp_table_a AS (
SELECT * FROM <Table A> WHERE ...
)
CREATE TEMP TABLE temp_table_b AS (
SELECT * FROM <Table B> WHERE <Foreign Key> IN (
SELECT <Primary Key> FROM temp_table_a
)
)
3) We can now define a function that will cascade primary key column updates out to related foreign key columns, and trigger which will execute whenever the primary key column changes. For example:
CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION cascade_temp_table_a_pk()
RETURNS trigger AS
$$
BEGIN
UPDATE <Temp Table B> SET <Foreign Key> = NEW.<Primary Key>
WHERE <Foreign Key> = OLD.<Primary Key>;
RETURN NEW;
END;
$$ LANGUAGE plpgsql;
CREATE TRIGGER trigger_temp_table_a
AFTER UPDATE
ON <Temp Table A>
FOR EACH ROW
WHEN (OLD.<Primary Key> != NEW.<Primary Key>)
EXECUTE PROCEDURE cascade_temp_table_a_pk();
4) Now we just update the primary key column in to the next value of the sequence of the source table (). This will activate the trigger, and the updates will be cascaded out to the foreign key columns in . In Postgres you can do the following:
UPDATE <Temp Table A>
SET <Primary Key> = nextval(pg_get_serial_sequence('<Table A>', '<Primary Key>'))
5) Insert the data back from the temporary tables back into the source tables. And then drop the temporary tables, triggers, and functions after that.
INSERT INTO <Table A> (SELECT * FROM <Temp Table A>)
INSERT INTO <Table B> (SELECT * FROM <Temp Table B>)
DROP TRIGGER trigger_temp_table_a
DROP cascade_temp_table_a_pk()
It is possible to take this general approach and turn it into a script which can be called recursively in order to go infinitely deep. I ended up doing just that using python (our application was using django so I was able to use the django ORM to make some of this easier)
I'm trying to find a query for sql that will just insert values but not do it should the value exist. Now ive seen alot of examples but they all rely on primary keys or table to table moves. I just want to add a new row in the table and assuming that one of the collumns doesnt have the same value add it. I know the following wont work but its as close to I think it would be and might just clear it up if my writting is not enough.
INSERT INTO table (txtLastName,txtEmail,txtZip)
Values ('Tester','test#test.com','12345')
WHERE txtLastName <> 'Tester'
or WHERE txtEmail <> 'test#test.com'
or WHERE txtZip <> '12345'
Using MS SQL Server.
You should create a Unique Constraint composed by the three fields (txtLastName, txtEmail, txtZip).
The links directs you to SQL Server docs, but the concept of unique constraint is RDBMS universal.
Just beware that when you create a Unique Constraint, your duplicate insert will not just fail silently: it will throw an error saying the insert tried to violate the unique constraint. And, of course, it should do that! Make sure your code handles that exception.
Try this:
INSERT INTO table (txtLastName,txtEmail,txtZip)
SELECT 'Tester','test#test.com','12345'
WHERE NOT EXISTS (SELECT *
FROM table
WHERE txtLastName = 'Tester'
AND txtEmail = 'test#test.com'
AND txtZip = '12345'
)
I have this table which doesn't have a primary key.
I'm going to insert some records in a new table to analyze them and I'm thinking in creating a new primary key with the values from all the available columns.
If this were a programming language like Java I would:
int hash = column1 * 31 + column2 * 31 + column3*31
Or something like that. But this is SQL.
How can I create a primary key from the values of the available columns? It won't work for me to simply mark all the columns as PK, for what I need to do is to compare them with data from other DB table.
My table has 3 numbers and a date.
EDIT What my problem is
I think a bit more of background is needed. I'm sorry for not providing it before.
I have a database ( dm ) that is being updated everyday from another db ( original source ) . It has records form the past two years.
Last month ( july ) the update process got broken and for a month there was no data being updated into the dm.
I manually create a table with the same structure in my Oracle XE, and I copy the records from the original source into my db ( myxe ) I copied only records from July to create a report needed by the end of the month.
Finally on aug 8 the update process got fixed and the records which have been waiting to be migrated by this automatic process got copied into the database ( from originalsource to dm ).
This process does clean up from the original source the data once it is copied ( into dm ).
Everything look fine, but we have just realize that an amount of the records got lost ( about 25% of july )
So, what I want to do is to use my backup ( myxe ) and insert into the database ( dm ) all those records missing.
The problem here are:
They don't have a well defined PK.
They are in separate databases.
So I thought that If I could create a unique pk from both tables which gave the same number I could tell which were missing and insert them.
EDIT 2
So I did the following in my local environment:
select a.* from the_table#PRODUCTION a , the_table b where
a.idle = b.idle and
a.activity = b.activity and
a.finishdate = b.finishdate
Which returns all the rows that are present in both databases ( the .. union? ) I've got 2,000 records.
What I'm going to do next, is delete them all from the target db and then just insert them all s from my db into the target table
I hope I don't get in something worst : - S : -S
The danger of creating a hash value by combining the 3 numbers and the date is that it might not be unique and hence cannot be used safely as a primary key.
Instead I'd recommend using an autoincrementing ID for your primary key.
Just create a surrogate key:
ALTER TABLE mytable ADD pk_col INT
UPDATE mytable
SET pk_col = rownum
ALTER TABLE mytable MODIFY pk_col INT NOT NULL
ALTER TABLE mytable ADD CONSTRAINT pk_mytable_pk_col PRIMARY KEY (pk_col)
or this:
ALTER TABLE mytable ADD pk_col RAW(16)
UPDATE mytable
SET pk_col = SYS_GUID()
ALTER TABLE mytable MODIFY pk_col RAW(16) NOT NULL
ALTER TABLE mytable ADD CONSTRAINT pk_mytable_pk_col PRIMARY KEY (pk_col)
The latter uses GUID's which are unique across databases, but consume more spaces and are much slower to generate (your INSERT's will be slow)
Update:
If you need to create same PRIMARY KEYs on two tables with identical data, use this:
MERGE
INTO mytable v
USING (
SELECT rowid AS rid, rownum AS rn
FROM mytable
ORDER BY
co1l, col2, col3
)
ON (v.rowid = rid)
WHEN MATCHED THEN
UPDATE
SET pk_col = rn
Note that tables should be identical up to a single row (i. e. have same number of rows with same data in them).
Update 2:
For your very problem, you don't need a PK at all.
If you just want to select the records missing in dm, use this one (on dm side)
SELECT *
FROM mytable#myxe
MINUS
SELECT *
FROM mytable
This will return all records that exist in mytable#myxe but not in mytable#dm
Note that it will shrink all duplicates if any.
Assuming that you have ensured uniqueness...you can do almost the same thing in SQL. The only problem will be the conversion of the date to a numeric value so that you can hash it.
Select Table2.SomeFields
FROM Table1 LEFT OUTER JOIN Table2 ON
(Table1.col1 * 31) + (Table1.col2 * 31) + (Table1.col3 * 31) +
((DatePart(year,Table1.date) + DatePart(month,Table1.date) + DatePart(day,Table1.date) )* 31) = Table2.hashedPk
The above query would work for SQL Server, the only difference for Oracle would be in terms of how you handle the date conversion. Moreover, there are other functions for converting dates in SQL Server as well, so this is by no means the only solution.
And, you can combine this with Quassnoi's SET statement to populate the new field as well. Just use the left side of the Join condition logic for the value.
If you're loading your new table with values from the old table, and you then need to join the two tables, you can only "properly" do this if you can uniquely identify each row in the original table. Quassnoi's solution will allow you to do this, IF you can first alter the old table by adding a new column.
If you cannot alter the original table, generating some form of hash code based on the columns of the old table would work -- but, again, only if the hash codes uniquely identify each row. (Oracle has checksum functions, right? If so, use them.)
If hash code uniqueness cannot be guaranteed, you may have to settle for a primary key composed of as many columns are required to ensure uniqueness (e.g. the natural key). If there is no natural key, well, I heard once that Oracle provides a rownum for each row of data, could you use that?