I am trying to fix a stored procedure that we have created to count number of running procedures with a certain name.
What I am trying to do is get the number of running stored procedures that match a specific title and it works fine when the Stored Procedure executing the query is in the same Database as the procedures I am trying to count as running. But I don't understand how I can count the number of running procedures matching a name running in a different Database. I assume the dbid parameter has to be used in some way, but I don't understand how.
The database I want to count in is called "ScheduledJobs" rather than MySampleDB where I have to put the stored procedure (I can't move it to the other DB for different reasons).
Any suggestions are welcome. Here is my code:
USE [MySampleDB]
GO
SET ANSI_NULLS ON
GO
SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON
GO
ALTER procedure [dbo].[sp_CheckRuns2]
#RowsAffected INT OUTPUT
AS
BEGIN
SELECT
object_name(st.objectid) as ProcName
FROM
sys.dm_exec_connections as qs
CROSS APPLY sys.dm_exec_sql_text(qs.most_recent_sql_handle) st
WHERE
object_name(st.objectid) is not null and OBJECT_NAME(st.objectid) like '%sp_UPDATER'
END
select #RowsAffected = ##rowcount
RETURN #RowsAffected
Just pass in dbid as an extra parameter
WHERE OBJECT_NAME(st.objectid, st.dbid) like '%sp_UPDATER'
Side note: You should remove RETURN #RowsAffected. It is not necessary, as you are anyway passing back an OUTPUT parameter. Note also that most client APIs will give the rowcount in any case.
We have an SSRS report that runs a simple stored procedure, with 2 single-value parameters passed to it. Both the SSRS report and the stored procedure executed in SSMS returns in < 1 second. However, in the course of the last 2 weeks, there's been one user who has had the report not load twice. I've tried clearing the stored procedure's execution plan to no avail, and finally fixed it by just adding a dummy clause (1=1) to the sp to get the plan to change. The report works for every other user, including myself. What would be causing this?
This might be 'parameter sniffing', in which SQL Server generates a query plan for a specific value of the parameter which works ok for that value but works very badly for some other values.
A trick to 'turn off' parameter sniffing is to have some local variables in the stored procedure that are assigned the parameter values before you use them.
CREATE PROCEDURE [GetAroundParameterSniffing]
#SomeID INT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #LocalSomeID INT;
SET #LocalSomeID = #SomeID;
SELECT *
FROM MyTable m
WHERE m.SomeID = #LocalSomeID;
END
This forces SQL Server to come up with a plan independent of the parameter value
I have three stored procedures Sp1, Sp2 and Sp3.
The first one (Sp1) will execute the second one (Sp2) and save returned data into #tempTB1 and the second one will execute the third one (Sp3) and save data into #tempTB2.
If I execute the Sp2 it will work and it will return me all my data from the Sp3, but the problem is in the Sp1, when I execute it it will display this error:
INSERT EXEC statement cannot be nested
I tried to change the place of execute Sp2 and it display me another error:
Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement
within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
This is a common issue when attempting to 'bubble' up data from a chain of stored procedures. A restriction in SQL Server is you can only have one INSERT-EXEC active at a time. I recommend looking at How to Share Data Between Stored Procedures which is a very thorough article on patterns to work around this type of problem.
For example a work around could be to turn Sp3 into a Table-valued function.
This is the only "simple" way to do this in SQL Server without some giant convoluted created function or executed sql string call, both of which are terrible solutions:
create a temp table
openrowset your stored procedure data into it
EXAMPLE:
INSERT INTO #YOUR_TEMP_TABLE
SELECT * FROM OPENROWSET ('SQLOLEDB','Server=(local);TRUSTED_CONNECTION=YES;','set fmtonly off EXEC [ServerName].dbo.[StoredProcedureName] 1,2,3')
Note: You MUST use 'set fmtonly off', AND you CANNOT add dynamic sql to this either inside the openrowset call, either for the string containing your stored procedure parameters or for the table name. Thats why you have to use a temp table rather than table variables, which would have been better, as it out performs temp table in most cases.
OK, encouraged by jimhark here is an example of the old single hash table approach: -
CREATE PROCEDURE SP3 as
BEGIN
SELECT 1, 'Data1'
UNION ALL
SELECT 2, 'Data2'
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP2 as
BEGIN
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP3
else
EXEC SP3
END
go
CREATE PROCEDURE SP1 as
BEGIN
EXEC SP2
END
GO
/*
--I want some data back from SP3
-- Just run the SP1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--Try run this - get an error - can't nest Execs
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
INSERT INTO #tmp1
EXEC SP1
*/
/*
--I want some data back from SP3 into a table to do something useful
--However, if we run this single hash temp table it is in scope anyway so
--no need for the exec insert
if exists (select * from tempdb.dbo.sysobjects o where o.xtype in ('U') and o.id = object_id(N'tempdb..#tmp1'))
DROP TABLE #tmp1
CREATE TABLE #tmp1 (ID INT, Data VARCHAR(20))
EXEC SP1
SELECT * FROM #tmp1
*/
My work around for this problem has always been to use the principle that single hash temp tables are in scope to any called procs. So, I have an option switch in the proc parameters (default set to off). If this is switched on, the called proc will insert the results into the temp table created in the calling proc. I think in the past I have taken it a step further and put some code in the called proc to check if the single hash table exists in scope, if it does then insert the code, otherwise return the result set. Seems to work well - best way of passing large data sets between procs.
This trick works for me.
You don't have this problem on remote server, because on remote server, the last insert command waits for the result of previous command to execute. It's not the case on same server.
Profit that situation for a workaround.
If you have the right permission to create a Linked Server, do it.
Create the same server as linked server.
in SSMS, log into your server
go to "Server Object
Right Click on "Linked Servers", then "New Linked Server"
on the dialog, give any name of your linked server : eg: THISSERVER
server type is "Other data source"
Provider : Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL server
Data source: your IP, it can be also just a dot (.), because it's localhost
Go to the tab "Security" and choose the 3rd one "Be made using the login's current security context"
You can edit the server options (3rd tab) if you want
Press OK, your linked server is created
now your Sql command in the SP1 is
insert into #myTempTable
exec THISSERVER.MY_DATABASE_NAME.MY_SCHEMA.SP2
Believe me, it works even you have dynamic insert in SP2
I found a work around is to convert one of the prods into a table valued function. I realize that is not always possible, and introduces its own limitations. However, I have been able to always find at least one of the procedures a good candidate for this. I like this solution, because it doesn't introduce any "hacks" to the solution.
I encountered this issue when trying to import the results of a Stored Proc into a temp table, and that Stored Proc inserted into a temp table as part of its own operation. The issue being that SQL Server does not allow the same process to write to two different temp tables at the same time.
The accepted OPENROWSET answer works fine, but I needed to avoid using any Dynamic SQL or an external OLE provider in my process, so I went a different route.
One easy workaround I found was to change the temporary table in my stored procedure to a table variable. It works exactly the same as it did with a temp table, but no longer conflicts with my other temp table insert.
Just to head off the comment I know that a few of you are about to write, warning me off Table Variables as performance killers... All I can say to you is that in 2020 it pays dividends not to be afraid of Table Variables. If this was 2008 and my Database was hosted on a server with 16GB RAM and running off 5400RPM HDDs, I might agree with you. But it's 2020 and I have an SSD array as my primary storage and hundreds of gigs of RAM. I could load my entire company's database to a table variable and still have plenty of RAM to spare.
Table Variables are back on the menu!
I recommend to read this entire article. Below is the most relevant section of that article that addresses your question:
Rollback and Error Handling is Difficult
In my articles on Error and Transaction Handling in SQL Server, I suggest that you should always have an error handler like
BEGIN CATCH
IF ##trancount > 0 ROLLBACK TRANSACTION
EXEC error_handler_sp
RETURN 55555
END CATCH
The idea is that even if you do not start a transaction in the procedure, you should always include a ROLLBACK, because if you were not able to fulfil your contract, the transaction is not valid.
Unfortunately, this does not work well with INSERT-EXEC. If the called procedure executes a ROLLBACK statement, this happens:
Msg 3915, Level 16, State 0, Procedure SalesByStore, Line 9 Cannot use the ROLLBACK statement within an INSERT-EXEC statement.
The execution of the stored procedure is aborted. If there is no CATCH handler anywhere, the entire batch is aborted, and the transaction is rolled back. If the INSERT-EXEC is inside TRY-CATCH, that CATCH handler will fire, but the transaction is doomed, that is, you must roll it back. The net effect is that the rollback is achieved as requested, but the original error message that triggered the rollback is lost. That may seem like a small thing, but it makes troubleshooting much more difficult, because when you see this error, all you know is that something went wrong, but you don't know what.
I had the same issue and concern over duplicate code in two or more sprocs. I ended up adding an additional attribute for "mode". This allowed common code to exist inside one sproc and the mode directed flow and result set of the sproc.
what about just store the output to the static table ? Like
-- SubProcedure: subProcedureName
---------------------------------
-- Save the value
DELETE lastValue_subProcedureName
INSERT INTO lastValue_subProcedureName (Value)
SELECT #Value
-- Return the value
SELECT #Value
-- Procedure
--------------------------------------------
-- get last value of subProcedureName
SELECT Value FROM lastValue_subProcedureName
its not ideal, but its so simple and you don't need to rewrite everything.
UPDATE:
the previous solution does not work well with parallel queries (async and multiuser accessing) therefore now Iam using temp tables
-- A local temporary table created in a stored procedure is dropped automatically when the stored procedure is finished.
-- The table can be referenced by any nested stored procedures executed by the stored procedure that created the table.
-- The table cannot be referenced by the process that called the stored procedure that created the table.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NULL
CREATE TABLE #lastValue_spGetData (Value INT)
-- trigger stored procedure with special silent parameter
EXEC dbo.spGetData 1 --silent mode parameter
nested spGetData stored procedure content
-- Save the output if temporary table exists.
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..#lastValue_spGetData') IS NOT NULL
BEGIN
DELETE #lastValue_spGetData
INSERT INTO #lastValue_spGetData(Value)
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
END
-- stored procedure return
IF #silentMode = 0
SELECT Col1 FROM dbo.Table1
Declare an output cursor variable to the inner sp :
#c CURSOR VARYING OUTPUT
Then declare a cursor c to the select you want to return.
Then open the cursor.
Then set the reference:
DECLARE c CURSOR LOCAL FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR
SELECT ...
OPEN c
SET #c = c
DO NOT close or reallocate.
Now call the inner sp from the outer one supplying a cursor parameter like:
exec sp_abc a,b,c,, #cOUT OUTPUT
Once the inner sp executes, your #cOUT is ready to fetch. Loop and then close and deallocate.
If you are able to use other associated technologies such as C#, I suggest using the built in SQL command with Transaction parameter.
var sqlCommand = new SqlCommand(commandText, null, transaction);
I've created a simple Console App that demonstrates this ability which can be found here:
https://github.com/hecked12/SQL-Transaction-Using-C-Sharp
In short, C# allows you to overcome this limitation where you can inspect the output of each stored procedure and use that output however you like, for example you can feed it to another stored procedure. If the output is ok, you can commit the transaction, otherwise, you can revert the changes using rollback.
On SQL Server 2008 R2, I had a mismatch in table columns that caused the Rollback error. It went away when I fixed my sqlcmd table variable populated by the insert-exec statement to match that returned by the stored proc. It was missing org_code. In a windows cmd file, it loads result of stored procedure and selects it.
set SQLTXT= declare #resets as table (org_id nvarchar(9), org_code char(4), ^
tin(char9), old_strt_dt char(10), strt_dt char(10)); ^
insert #resets exec rsp_reset; ^
select * from #resets;
sqlcmd -U user -P pass -d database -S server -Q "%SQLTXT%" -o "OrgReport.txt"
In order to retrieve an ID, I first do a select and then an update, in two consequent queries.
The problem is that I am having problems with locked rows. I've read that putting both this statements, Select and Update in one stored procedure it helps with the locks. Is this true?
The queries I run are:
select counter
from dba.counter_list
where table_name = :TableName
update dba.counter_list
set counter = :NewCounter
where table_name = :TableName
The problem is that it can happen that multiple users are selecting the same row and also possible that they update the same row.
Assumptions:
you're using Sybase ASE
your select returns a single value for counter
you may want the old counter value for some purpose other than performing the update
Consider the following update statement which should eliminate any race conditions that may occur with multiple users running your select/update logic concurrently:
declare #counter int -- change to the appropriate datatype
update dba.counter_list
set #counter = counter, -- grab current value
counter = :NewCounter -- set to new value
where table_name = :TableName
select #counter -- send previous counter value to client
the update obtains an exclusive lock on the desired row (or page/table depending on table design and locking scheme)
with an exclusive lock in place you're able to retrieve the current value and set the new value with a single statement
Whether you submit the above via a SQL batch or a stored proc call is up to you and your DBA to decide ...
if statement cache is disabled, a SQL batch will need to be compiled each time it's submitted to the dataserver
if statement cache is enabled, and you submit this SQL batch on a regular basis then there's a chance the previous query plan is still in statement/procedure cache thus eliminating the (costly) compilation step
if a copy of previous stored proc (query) plan is not in procedure cache then you'll incur the (costly) compilation step when loading a (proc) query plan into procedure cahe
a stored proc is typically easier to replace in the event of a syntax/logic/performance issue (as opposed to editing, and possibly compiling, a front-end application)
... add your (least) favorite argument for SQL batch vs stored proc (vs prepared statement?) vs ??? ...
Is the table counter_list accessed by multiple clients concurrently ?
The best practices for OLTP is to call a stored procedure that will perform the update logic in one transaction.
Check that the table dba.counter_list has an index on column table_name.
Check also that it is row level locked.
I can run a stored procedure multiple times and it wont hit it's cache: (1665ms is duration column)
But if I then alter the stored procedure changing nothing: (240ms is duration column)
Problem: how to get the stored procedure to always be fast (on the second and next calls)
With some digging I found that when I called the SP initially (after a reboot) with a NULL applicationID
exec [dbo].[usp_Tab32] #responsibleReviewerID=1135,#applicationID=NULL,#environment=1,#userUIStatus=0,#roleID=NULL
then with a more confined query:
exec [dbo].[usp_Tab32] #responsibleReviewerID=1135,#applicationID=1406,#environment=1,#userUIStatus=0,#roleID=NULL
This would be slow.
However if I hit the more confined query first, then both would be fast.
To clear down the database plan cache:
DECLARE #dbId INTEGER
SELECT #dbId = dbid FROM master.dbo.sysdatabases WHERE name = ‘myDatabase’
DBCC FLUSHPROCINDB (#dbId)
More detail here
All against SQL2012 Developer edition.
Create your stored procedure with RECOMPILE and recompile at Runtime
CREATE PROCEDURE yourprodecurename
WITH RECOMPILE
AS
--your code here
GO
then call it in this way:
EXEC yourprodecurename WITH RECOMPILE
This should give you the experience you want, because, when a procedure is compiled for the first time or recompiled, the procedures query plan is optimized for the current state of the database.
So this can improve the procedure’s processing performance.