I have data in two tables that i want to get into a view to then be able to do reporting on and having trouble as only some of the records in the first table have records in the second table.
The data is ranges for a product.
For example I have 2 options the first has 6 ranges of pricing, 3 are stored in table A and 3 in table B linked by the ID of the record in table A. The second has only 3 ranges that are in table A so no record is created in table B for this product.
When I try to do a create view and include the details from the second table I only get the details for the first option and not the second as it is excluding this because there is no record in the second table.
How do I over come this?
TableP1 TableP2
Product_id Unit Range 1 Range 2 Range 3 TableP1_ID Range 4 Range 5 Range 6 TableP1_ID
1 Person 20 18 16 1 14 12 10 1
2 Person 25 22 2
not sure if the above makes sense.
Can you not have two queries and UNION the results together in your VIEW code?
Something like:
CREATE myView
AS
SELECT X,
Y
FROM Table1
UNION
SELECT X,
Y
FROM Table2;
Related
UPDATE Table1
SET SomeColumn = X.SomeOtherColumn
FROM Table1 T1
CROSS APPLY
(SELECT TOP 1 SomeOtherColumn
FROM Table2 T2
WHERE T2.SomeJoinColumn = T1.SomeJoinColumn
ORDER BY CounterColumn) AS X
I want to increase CounterColumn by 1 each time the cross apply query runs. Is there any way I could achieve this?
Some context and sample data
I have a table containing information about companies. I want to anonymize the company numbers in this table. To do this, I want to use data from another table, containing synthetized data. This table has a much smaller sample size. So I have to reuse the same synthetic companies multiple times. For each row in the table I anonymize, I want to pick a synthetic company of the same type. I want to use all the synthetic companies. That's where the counter comes in, counting how many times I've used that specific synthetic company. By sorting by this counter, I was hoping to be able to always pick the synthetic company that's been used the least.
Company table (Table1)
CompanyNumber
Type
67923
2
82034
2
90238
7
29378
2
92809
5
72890
2
Synthetic company table (Table2)
SyntheticCompanyNumber
Type
Counter
08366
5
0
12588
2
0
33823
2
0
27483
7
0
Expected output of Company table:
CompanyNumber
Type
12588
2
33823
2
27483
7
12588
2
08366
5
33823
2
Expected output of synthetic company table
SynteticCompanyNumber
Type
Counter
08366
5
1
12588
2
2
33823
2
2
27483
7
1
I am using influxDB and I would like to extract some values which is greater than certain threshold in other table.
For example, I have two tables as shown in below.
Table A
Time value
1 15
2 25
3 9
4 22
Table B
Time threshold
1 16
2 12
3 13
4 15
Give above two tables, I would like to extract three values which is greater than first row in Table B. Therefore what I want to have is as below.
Time value
2 25
4 22
I tried it using below sql query, but it didn't give any correct result.
select * from data1 where value > (select spec from spec1 limit1);
Look forward to your feedback.
Thanks.
Integrate the condition in an inner join:
select * from tableA as a
inner join tableB as b on a.id=b.id and a.value > b.threshold
When your time column doesn't only include integer values, you have to format the time and join on a time range. Here is an example:
SQL join on time range
I have 2 procedures (say A and B). They both return data with similar columns set (Id, Name, Count). To be more concrete, procedures results examples are listed below:
A:
Id Name Count
1 A 10
2 B 11
B:
Id Name Count
1 E 14
2 F 15
3 G 16
4 H 17
The IDs are generated as ROW_NUMBER() as I don't have own identifiers for these records because they are aggregated values.
In code I query over the both results using the same class NameAndCountView.
And finally my problem. When I look into results after executing both procedures sequentially I get the following:
A:
Id Name Count
1 A 10 ->|
2 B 11 ->|
|
B: |
Id Name Count |
1 A 10 <-|
2 B 11 <-|
3 G 16
4 H 17
As you can see results in the second set are replaced with results with the same IDs from the first. Of course the problem take place because I use the same class for retrieving data, right?
The question is how to make this work without creating additional NameAndCountView2-like class?
If possible, and if you don't really mind about the original Id values, maybe you can try having the first query return even Ids :
ROW_NUMBER() over (order by .... )*2
while the second returns odd Ids :
ROW_NUMBER() over (order by .... )*2+1
This would also allow you to know where the Ids come from.
I guess this would be repeatable with N queries by having the query number i selecting
ROW_NUMBER() over (order by .... )*n+i
Hope this will help
I don't just mean put them together as in I have one row in table 1 that says "Stuff" and another row in table 2 that says "Things" and that puts them together into a single cell that says "StuffThings", I just mean to simply have all the data in table 1 and table 2 combined into one column. For example....
Table 1:
Item 1
Item 2
Item 3
Table 2:
Item 4
Item 5
Item 6
New Table:
Item 1
Item 2
Item 3
Item 4
Item 5
Item 6
All my attempts to do this have been something like
Select (Table1.Row + Table2.Row) AS JobNumber
FROM Table1, Table2;
It just does something like
Item 1Item 2
Item 1Item 3
.....
etc.
I think you want a UNION query:
SELECT Table1.Row AS JobNumber
FROM Table1
UNION
SELECT Table2.Row AS JobNumber
FROM Table2
Or UNION ALL, if you want duplicates.
Here is a sample of my data (n>3000) that ties two numbers together:
id a b
1 7028344 7181310
2 7030342 7030344
3 7030354 7030353
4 7030343 7030345
5 7030344 7030342
6 7030364 7008059
7 7030659 7066051
8 7030345 7030343
9 7031815 7045692
10 7032644 7102337
Now, the problem is that id=2 is a duplicate of id=5 and id=4 is a duplicate of id=8. So, when I tried to write if-then statements to map column a to column b, basically the numbers just get swapped. There are many cases like this in my full data.
So, my question is to identify the duplicate(s) and somehow delete one of the duplicates (either id=2 or id=5). And I preferably want to do this in Excel but I could work with SQL Server or SAS, too.
Thank you in advance. Please comment if my question is not clear.
What I want:
id a b
1 7028344 7181310
2 7030342 7030344
3 7030354 7030353
4 7030343 7030345
6 7030364 7008059
7 7030659 7066051
9 7031815 7045692
10 7032644 7102337
All sorts of ways to do this.
In SAS or SQL, this is simple (for SQL Server, the SQL portion should be identical or nearly so):
data have;
input id a b;
datalines;
1 7028344 7181310
2 7030342 7030344
3 7030354 7030353
4 7030343 7030345
5 7030344 7030342
6 7030364 7008059
7 7030659 7066051
8 7030345 7030343
9 7031815 7045692
10 7032644 7102337
;;;;
run;
proc sql undopolicy=none;
delete from have H where exists (
select 1 from have V where V.id < H.id
and (V.a=H.a and V.b=H.b) or (V.a=H.b and V.b=H.a)
);
quit;
The excel solution would require creating an additional column I believe with the concatenation of the two strings, in order (any order will do) and then a lookup to see if that is the first row with that value or not. I don't think you can do it without creating an additional column (or using VBA, which if you can use that will have a fairly simple solution as well).
Edit:
Actually, the excel solution IS possible without creating a new column (well, you need to put this formula somewhere, but without ANOTHER additional column).
=IF(OR(AND(COUNTIF(B$1:B1,B2),COUNTIF(C$1:C1,C2)),AND(COUNTIF(B$1:B1,C2),COUNTIF(C$1:C1,B2))),"DUPLICATE","")
Assuming ID is in A, B and C contain the values (and there is no header row). That formula goes in the second row (ie, B2/C2 values) and then is extended to further rows (so row 36 will have the arrays be B1:B35 and C1:C35 etc.). That puts DUPLICATE in the rows which are duplicates of something above and blank in rows that are unique.
I haven't tested this out but here is some food for thought, you could join the table against itself and get the ID's that have duplicates
SELECT
id, a, b
FROM
[myTable]
INNER JOIN ( SELECT id, a, b FROM [myTable] ) tbl2
ON [myTable].a = [tbl2].b
OR [myTable].b = tbl2.a