I want to implement an audit log using triggers which gets fired on created, changed and deleted data to store some values. Those triggers should be able to use user ids which made the changes and which are managed by the web application. I have some ideas on providing this data, but I don't seem to fully understand what the execution context of a trigger is. I've read through the PostgreSQL docs Overview of Trigger Behavior and others but my question doesn't seem to be answered.
What I want to know is the interaction between a client session with one running transaction and the trigger execution and the lifetime of both and how they depend on each other. From my understanding triggers are executed within the database independently from the client session which created the event which lead to trigger execution. Is that correct? That would mean triggers and their processing wouldn't impact performance of the client request and the client can close the session at any time. If both are independent, how would a trigger get notified about a client rolling back a transaction, which would logically mean that no data got changed at all? Or are triggers onyl executed after committing a transaction because they run independently?
Or are triggers executed async within the client session which created the events which lead to trigger execution? This would mean that if the client closes it's session for any reason, the trigger would abort, too. Their changes are directly bound to the clients transaction and can be rolled back, too.
I need to understand the behavior to know what I would like to do in another question.
Thanks for your input!
From my understanding triggers are executed within the database
independently from the client session which created the event which
lead to trigger execution. Is that correct? That would mean triggers
and their processing wouldn't impact performance of the client request
and the client can close the session at any time
No they totally depend on the client session, as part of the transaction which itself is tied to the session.
See this excerpt from CREATE TRIGGER (9.1):
They can be fired either at the end of the statement causing the
triggering event, or at the end of the containing transaction; in the
latter case they are said to be deferred
From your other question it appears you're using 8.4, which doesn't have deferred triggers, so it's even simpler. Triggers run always at the end of the statement (the triggering event), which means before the acknowledgment of execution is sent by the server to the client.
A COMMIT immediately following would be a new instruction, and could not be executed before the trigger is finished.
Related
if i need run an DML (insert, update, delete) in one table of database, firstly he verify if has an active DML using that table. In this momment, if has another operation, my connection wait he has finished.
There's a way to get an "time out" in this cases? Not in a global mode, only for specific cases.
--Edit for more specifications of the problem
Not sure if any kind of lock is actually used. But in my case, there is an old application in Oracle Forms and a new application written by me.
The problem is that when the user opens a specific record to update any field in the old application, and i try to edit the same record in my app, the line is blocked.
So my app it's waiting for the unlock. But the problem is that the user thinks the application is frozen and kill him, losing the changes.
But this is not the case if another Oracle Forms application attempts to edit. When it does, Oracle Forms displays the message "Could not reserve record (2). Keep trying?". Maybe it's because this old app uses any kind of lock. But i need validate this in the code.
Obs: The number 2 is the number of tries to update.
If you do a 'lock table .... wait', then it will wait until any DML on this table that is inflight commits, then gives you the lock. This will make any one coming after you wait till you release the lock. Look at the doc to see how to use this.
Then there's the possibility of locking a single row (select for update). which is more granular.
That being said, can you please explain what are you exactly trying to do? As you may not need to do this at all.
I was wondering at point after issuing a SqliteConnection BeginTransaction() call does the Reserve Lock engage and start blocking writes ?
Does the Reserve Lock correspond to the actual BeginTransaction call, or is it only after Commit is called and the transaction run ?
I ask b/c, in order to leverage my existing data access layer, and not have to write custom transactions everytime I need one to prevent a race condition, I wan't to make a call to BeginTransaction(), and then call any combination of existing Select/Insert/Update wrappers to solve a problem at hand, while having exclusive write access, then finally call a Commit. In order to prevent the race conditions I'm trying to avoid, I would require that the reserve lock on the transaction is active "immediately" upon calling BeginTransaction (ie, sometime before it returns).
If more clarification or details are needed, please let me know and I'll be happy to provide them. Thank ya's kindly for your expertise.
The documentation says:
The first read operation against a database creates a SHARED lock and the first write operation creates a RESERVED lock.
When all changes fit into the page cache, the first actual write operation will happen during the COMMIT.
To force SQLite to take a lock when executing the BEGIN, start the transaction with BEGIN IMMEDIATE:
After a BEGIN IMMEDIATE, no other database connection will be able to write to the database or do a BEGIN IMMEDIATE or BEGIN EXCLUSIVE. Other processes can continue to read from the database, however.
If you want to prevent reads (which should not be necessary as all transactions are properly serialized in any case), use BEGIN EXCLUSIVE.
According to several resources, such as this,
A query that is executed within the context of a trigger is automatically wrapped in a transaction. If there are any distributed queries in the trigger code, the transaction is promoted to a distributed transaction automatically.
Simple question - is there a way to prevent this behavior? I'm looking for a way to explicitly prevent code in my trigger from running in the context of a transaction.
If you are trying to do something asynchronous so that the calling transaction doesn't have to wait, you may consider Service Broker, which is designed to do exactly that - go fire off some asynchronous task, and return control to the caller, regardless of transaction scope.
Another idea is to not have your trigger perform the work, but instead pop a work item onto a queue table, and have a background process running continuously to process the queue. This isn't necessarily easy to do if your work item operates on the set of data in inserted/deleted but without more context it certainly seems like a viable option.
I don't know of a way to prevent a trigger from being a part of the calling transaction - in fact that's kind of the whole point.
This is called "autonomous transaction", and the simplest way to implement is by creating a linked server to point to the original database.
See this MSDN blog for a possible solution.
I'm writing some SQL code that needs to be executed when rows are inserted in a database table, so I'm using an AFTER INSERT trigger; the code is quite complex, thus there could still be some bugs around.
I've discovered that, if an error happens when executing a trigger, SQL Server aborts the batch and/or the whole transaction. This is not acceptable for me, because it causes problems to the main application that uses the database; I also don't have the source code for that application, so I can't perform proper debugging on it. I absolutely need all database actions to succeed, even if my trigger fails.
How can I code my trigger so that, should an error happen, SQL Server will not abort the INSERT action?
Additionally, how can I perform proper error handling so that I can actually know the trigger has failed? Sending an email with the error data would be ok for me (the trigger's main purpose is actually sending emails), but how do I detect an error condition in a trigger and react to it?
Edit:
Thanks for the tips about optimizing performance by using something else than a trigger, but this code is not "complex" in the sense that it's long-running or performance intensive; it simply builds and sends a mail message, but in order to do so, it must retrieve data from various linked tables, and since I am reverse-engineering this application, I don't have the database schema available and am still trying to find my way around it; this is why conversion errors or unexpected/null values can still creep up, crashing the trigger execution.
Also, as stated above, I absolutely can't perform debugging on the application itself, nor modify it to do what I need in the application layer; the only way to react to an application event is by firing a database trigger when the application writes to the DB that something has just heppened.
If the operations in the trigger are complex and/or potentially long running, and you don't want the activity to affect the original transaction, then you need to find a way to decouple the activity.
One way might be to use Service Broker. In the trigger, just create message(s) (one per row) and send them on their way, then do the rest of the processing in the service.
If that seems too complex, the older way to do it is to insert the rows needing processing into a work/queue table, and then have a job continuously pulling rows from there are doing the work.
Either way, you're now not preventing the original transaction from committing.
Triggers are part of the transaction. You could do try catch swallow around the trigger code, or somewhat more professional try catch log swallow, but really you should let it go bang and then fix the real problem which can only be in your trigger.
If none of the above are acceptable, then you can't use a trigger.
Scenario:
We have a wcf workflow with a client that does NOT use transactionflow.
The workflow contains several sequential TransactedReceiveScopes (using content-based correlation).
The TransactedReceiveScopes contain custom db operations.
Observations:
When we run SQL profiler against the first call, we see all the custom db calls, and the SaveInstance call in the profile trace.
We've noticed that, even though the SendReply is at the very end of TransactedReceiveScope, sometimes the sendreply occurs a good 10 seconds before the transaction gets committed.
We tried changing the TimeToPersist and TimeToUnload to zero, but that had no effect. (The trace shows the SaveInstance happening immediately anyway, but rather the commit seems to be delayed).
Questions:
Are our observations correct?
At what point is the transaction committed? Is this like garbage collection - i.e. it commits some time later when it's not busy?
Is there any way to control the commit delay, or is the only way to do this to use transactionflow from the client (anc then it should all commit when the client commits, including the persist).
The TransactedReceiveScope commits the transaction when the body is completed but as all execution is done through the scheduler that could be some time later. It is not related to garbage collection and there is no real way to influence it other that to avoid a busy machine and a lot of other parallel activities that could also be in the execution queue.