On some Microsoft Access queries, I get the following message: Operation must use an updatable query. (Error 3073). I work around it by using temporary tables, but I'm wondering if there's a better way. All the tables involved have a primary key. Here's the code:
UPDATE CLOG SET CLOG.NEXTDUE = (
SELECT H1.paidthru
FROM CTRHIST as H1
WHERE H1.ACCT = clog.ACCT AND
H1.SEQNO = (
SELECT MAX(SEQNO)
FROM CTRHIST
WHERE CTRHIST.ACCT = Clog.ACCT AND
CTRHIST.AMTPAID > 0 AND
CTRHIST.DATEPAID < CLOG.UPDATED_ON
)
)
WHERE CLOG.NEXTDUE IS NULL;
Since Jet 4, all queries that have a join to a SQL statement that summarizes data will be non-updatable. You aren't using a JOIN, but the WHERE clause is exactly equivalent to a join, and thus, the Jet query optimizer treats it the same way it treats a join.
I'm afraid you're out of luck without a temp table, though maybe somebody with greater Jet SQL knowledge than I can come up with a workaround.
BTW, it might have been updatable in Jet 3.5 (Access 97), as a whole lot of queries were updatable then that became non-updatable when upgraded to Jet 4.
--
I had a similar problem where the following queries wouldn't work;
update tbl_Lot_Valuation_Details as LVD
set LVD.LGAName = (select LGA.LGA_NAME from tbl_Prop_LGA as LGA where LGA.LGA_CODE = LVD.LGCode)
where LVD.LGAName is null;
update tbl_LOT_VALUATION_DETAILS inner join tbl_prop_LGA on tbl_LOT_VALUATION_DETAILS.LGCode = tbl_prop_LGA.LGA_CODE
set tbl_LOT_VALUATION_DETAILS.LGAName = [tbl_Prop_LGA].[LGA_NAME]
where tbl_LOT_VALUATION_DETAILS.LGAName is null;
However using DLookup resolved the problem;
update tbl_Lot_Valuation_Details as LVD
set LVD.LGAName = dlookup("LGA_NAME", "tbl_Prop_LGA", "LGA_CODE="+LVD.LGCode)
where LVD.LGAName is null;
This solution was originally proposed at https://stackoverflow.com/questions/537161/sql-update-woes-in-ms-access-operation-must-use-an-updateable-query
The problem defintely relates to the use of (in this case) the max() function. Any aggregation function used during a join (e.g. to retrieve the max or min or avg value from a joined table) will cause the error. And the same applies to using subqueries instead of joins (as in the original code).
This is incredibly annoying (and unjustified!) as it is a reasonably common thing to want to do. I've also had to use temp tables to get around it (pull the aggregated value into a temp table with an insert statement, then join to this table with your update, then drop the temp table).
Glenn
There is no error in the code. But the error is Thrown because of the following reason.
- Please check weather you have given Read-write permission to MS-Access database file.
- The Database file where it is stored (say in Folder1) is read-only..?
suppose you are stored the database (MS-Access file) in read only folder, while running your application the connection is not force-fully opened. Hence change the file permission / its containing folder permission like in C:\Program files all most all c drive files been set read-only so changing this permission solves this Problem.
I know my answer is 7 years late, but here's my suggestion anyway:
When Access complains about an UPDATE query that includes a JOIN, just save the query, with RecordsetType property set to Dynaset (Inconsistent Updates).
This will sometimes allow the UPDATE to work.
Thirteen years later I face the same issue. DISTINCTROW did not solve my problem, but dlookup did.
I need to update a table from an aggregate query. As far as I understand, MS Access always assumes that de junction between the to-update table and the aggregate query is one-to-many., even though unique records are assured in the query.
The use of dlookup is:
DLOOKUP(Field, SetOfRecords, Criteria)
Field: a string that identifies the field from which the data is retrieved.
SetOfRecords: a string that identifies the set o record from which the field is retrieved, being a table name or a (saved) query name (that doesn’t require parameters).
Criteria: A string used to restrict the range of data on which the DLookup function is performed, equivalent to the WHERE clause in an SQL expression, without the word WHERE.
Remark
If more than one field meets criteria, the DLookup function returns the first occurrence. You should specify criteria that will ensure that the field value returned by the DLookup function is unique.
The query that worked for me is:
UPDATE tblTarifaDeCorretagem
SET tblTarifaDeCorretagem.ValorCorretagem =
[tblTarifaDeCorretagem].[TarifaParteFixa]+
DLookUp(
"[ParteVariável]",
"cstParteVariavelPorOrdem",
"[IdTarifaDeCorretagem] = " & [tblTarifaDeCorretagem].[IdTarifaDeCorretagem]
);
I would try building the UPDATE query in Access. I had an UPDATE query I wrote myself like
UPDATE TABLE1
SET Field1 =
(SELECT Table2.Field2
FROM Table2
WHERE Table2.UniqueIDColumn = Table1.UniqueIDColumn)
The query gave me that error you're seeing. This worked on my SQL Server though, but just like earlier answers noted, Access UPDATE syntax isn't standard syntax. However, when I rebuilt it using Access's query wizard (it used the JOIN syntax) it worked fine. Normally I'd just make the UPDATE query a passthrough to use the non-JET syntax, but one of the tables I was joining with was a local Access table.
This occurs when there is not a UNIQUE MS-ACCESS key for the table(s) being updated. (Regardless of the SQL schema).
When creating MS-Access Links to SQL tables, you are asked to specify the index (key) at link time. If this is done incorrectly, or not at all, the query against the linked table is not updatable
When linking SQL tables into Access MAKE SURE that when Access prompts you for the index (key) you use exactly what SQL uses to avoid problem(s), although specifying any unique key is all Access needs to update the table.
If you were not the person who originally linked the table, delete the linked table from MS-ACCESS (the link only gets deleted) and re-link it specifying the key properly and all will work correctly.
(A little late to the party...)
The three ways I've gotten around this problem in the past are:
Reference a text box on an open form
DSum
DLookup
I had the same issue.
My solution is to first create a table from the non updatable query and then do the update from table to table and it works.
Mine failed with a simple INSERT statement. Fixed by starting the application with 'Run as Administrator' access.
MS Access - joining tables in an update query... how to make it updatable
Open the query in design view
Click once on the link b/w tables/view
In the “properties” window, change the value for “unique records” to “yes”
Save the query as an update query and run it.
You can always write the code in VBA that updates similarly. I had this problem too, and my workaround was making a select query, with all the joins, that had all the data I was looking for to be able to update, making that a recordset and running the update query repeatedly as an update query of only the updating table, only searching the criteria you're looking for
Dim updatingItems As Recordset
Dim clientName As String
Dim tableID As String
Set updatingItems = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("*insert SELECT SQL here*");", dbOpenDynaset)
Do Until updatingItems .EOF
clientName = updatingItems .Fields("strName")
tableID = updatingItems .Fields("ID")
DoCmd.RunSQL "UPDATE *ONLY TABLE TO UPDATE* SET *TABLE*.strClientName= '" & clientName & "' WHERE (((*TABLE*.ID)=" & tableID & "))"
updatingItems.MoveNext
Loop
I'm only doing this to about 60 records a day, doing it to a few thousand could take much longer, as the query is running from start to finish multiple times, instead of just selecting an overall group and making changes. You might need ' ' around the quotes for tableID, as it's a string, but I'm pretty sure this is what worked for me.
I kept getting the same error until I made the connecting field a unique index in both connecting tables. Only then did the query become updatable.
Philip Stilianos
In essence, while your SQL looks perfectly reasonable, Jet has never supported the SQL standard syntax for UPDATE. Instead, it uses its own proprietary syntax (different again from SQL Server's proprietary UPDATE syntax) which is very limited. Often, the only workarounds "Operation must use an updatable query" are very painful. Seriously consider switching to a more capable SQL product.
For some more details about your specific problems and some possible workarounds, see Update Query Based on Totals Query Fails.
I kept getting the same error, but all SQLs execute in Access very well.
and when I amended the permission of AccessFile.
the problem fixed!!
I give 'Network Service' account full control permission, this account if for IIS
When I got this error, it may have been because of my UPDATE syntax being wrong, but after I fixed the update query I got the same error again...so I went to the ODBC Data Source Administrator and found that my connection was read-only. After I made the connection read-write and re-connected it worked just fine.
Today in my MS-Access 2003 with an ODBC tabla pointing to a SQL Server 2000 with sa password gave me the same error.
I defined a Primary Key on the table in the SQL Server database, and the issue was gone.
There is another scenario here that would apply. A file that was checked out of Visual Source Safe, for anyone still using it, that was not given "Writeablity", either in the View option or Check Out, will also recieve this error message.
Solution is to re-acquire the file from Source Safe and apply the Writeability setting.
To further answer what DRUA referred to in his/her answer...
I develop my databases in Access 2007. My users are using access 2007 runtime. They have read permissions to a database_Front (front end) folder, and read/write permissions to the database_Back folder.
In rolling out a new database, the user did not follow the full instructions of copying the front end to their computer, and instead created a shortcut. Running the Front-end through the shortcut will create a condition where the query is not updateable because of the file write restrictions.
Copying the front end to their documents folder solves the problem.
Yes, it complicates things when the users have to get an updated version of the front-end, but at least the query works without having to resort to temp tables and such.
check your DB (Database permission) and give full permission
Go to DB folder-> right click properties->security->edit-> give full control
& Start menu ->run->type "uac" make it down (if it high)
The answer given above by iDevlop worked for me. Note that I wasn't able to find the RecordsetType property in my update query. However, I was able to find that property by changing my query to a select query, setting that property as iDevlop noted and then changing my query to an update query. This worked, no need for a temp table.
I'd have liked for this to just be a comment to what iDevlop posted so that it flowed from his solution, but I don't have a high enough score.
I solved this by adding "DISTINCTROW"
so here this would be
UPDATE DISTINCTROW CLOG SET CLOG.NEXTDUE
I want to modify a column name to new name present in a table
but here problem i want to manually modify the column name present in Triggers or SP's.
Is there a any better way of doing it.
To rename a column am using this
sp_RENAME 'Tablename.old_Column', 'new_column' , 'COLUMN';
similarly how can i do it for triggers or SP's.? without opening each script?
Well, there are a bunch of 3rd party tools that are promising this type of "safe rename", some for free and some are not:
ApexSQL has a free tool for that, as MWillemse wrote in his answer,
RedGate have a commercial tool called SQLPrompt that also have a safe renaming feture, However it is far from being free.
Microsoft have a visual studio add-in called SQL Server Data Tools (or SSDT in the short version), as Dan Guzman wrote in his comment.
I have to say I've never tried any of these specific tools for that specific task, but I do have some experience with SSDT and some of RedGate's products and I consider them to be very good tools. I know nothing about ApexSQL.
Another option is to try and write the sql script yourself, However there are a couple of things to take into consideration before you start:
Can your table be accessed directly from outside the sql server? I mean, is it possible that some software is executing sql statement directly on that table? If so, you might break it when you rename that column, and no sql tool will help in this situation.
Are your sql scripting skills really that good? I consider myself to be fairly experienced with sql server, but I think writing a script like that is beyond my skills. Not that it's impossible for me, but it will probably take too much time and effort for something I can get for free.
Should you decide to write it yourself, there are a few articles that might help you in that task:
First, Microsoft official documentation of sys.sql_expression_dependencies.
Second, an article called Different Ways to Find SQL Server Object Dependencies that is written by a 13 years experience DBA,
and last but not least, a related question on StackExchange's Database Administrator's website.
You could, of course, go with the safe way Gordon Linoff suggested in his comment, or use synonyms like destination-data suggested in his answer, but then you will have to manually modify all of the columns dependencies manually, and from what I understand, that is what you want to avoid.
Renaming the Table column
Deleting the Table column
Alter Table Keys
Best way use Database Projects in Visual Studio.
Refer this links
link 1
link 2
you can do what #GorDon suggested.
Apart from this,you can also play with this query,
select o.name, sc.* from sys.syscomments sc inner join sys.objects o
on sc.id=o.object_id where sc.text like '%oldcolumnname%'
this will return list of all proc and trigger.Also you can modify filter to get exact list.then it will be very easy for you to modify,manually.
But whatever you decide,don't simply drop old column.
To be safe,even keep back up.
This suggestion relates to Oracle DB, however there may be equivalent solutions in other DBMS's.
A temporary solution to your issue is to create a pseudocolumn. This solution looks a little hacky because the syntax for a pseudocolumn requires an expression. The simplest expression I can think of is the case statement below. Let me know if you can make it more simple.
ALTER TABLE <<tablename>> ADD (
<<new_column_name>> AS (
CASE
WHEN 1=1 THEN <<tablename>>.<<old_column_name>>
END)
);
This strategy basically creates a new column on the fly by evaluating the case statement and copying the value of <<old_column_value>> to <<new_column_value>>. Because you are dynamically interpolating this column there is a performance penalty vs just selecting the original column.
The one gotcha is that this will only work if you are duplicating a column once. Multiple pseudocolumns cannot contain duplicate expressions in Oracle.
The other strategy you can consider is to create a view and you can name the columns whatever you want. You can even INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE (execute DML) against views, but this would give you a whole new table_name, not just a new column. You could however rename the old table, and name your view the same as your old table. This also has a performance penalty vs just accessing the underlying table.
You might want to replace that text in definition. However, you will be needing a dedicated administrator connection in sql server. Versions also vary in setting up a dedicated administrator connection. Setting up the startup parameter by adding ;-T7806 under advanced. And by adding Admin: before the servername upon logging in. By then, you may be able to modify the value of the definition.
I am wondering if anyone can explain why I get different results for the same query string between using the ExecuteSQL function in FM versus querying the database through a database browser (I'm using DBVisualizer).
Specifically, if I run
SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT IMV_ItemID) FROM IMV
in DBVis, I get 2802. In FileMaker, if I evaluate the expression
ExecuteSQL ( "SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT IMV_ItemID) FROM IMV"; ""; "")
then I get 2898. This makes me distrust the ExecuteSQL function. Inside of FM, the IMV table is an ODBC shadow, connected to the central MSSQL database. In DBVis, the application connects via JDBC. However, I don't think that should make any difference.
Any ideas why I get a different count for each method?
Actually, it turns out that when FM executes the SQL, it factors in whitespace, whereas DBVisualizer (not sure about other database browser apps, but I would assume it's the same) do not. Also, since the TRIM() function isn't supported by MSSQL (from what I've seen, at least) it is necessary to make the query inside of the ExecuteSQL statement something like:
SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT(LTRIM(RTRIM(IMV_ItemID)))) FROM IMV
Weird, but it works!
FM keeps a cache of the shadow table's records (for internal field-id-mapping). I'm not sure if the ExecuteSQL() function causes a re-creation of the cache. In other words: maybe the ESS shadow table is out of sync. Try to delete the cache by closing and restarting the FM client or perform a native find first.
You can also try a re-connect to the database server via the Open File script step.
HTH
I have used mysql for some projects and recently I moved to postgresql. In mysql when I alter a table or a field the corresponding query will be displayed in the page. But such a feature was not found in postgresql(kindly excuse me if I'm wrong). Since the query was readily available it was very helpful for me to test something in the local database(without explicitly typing the query), copy the printed query and run it in the server. Now it seems like I've to manually do all the trick. Even though I'm familiar with the query operations,at times it can be pretty time consuming process. Can anybody help me? How can I get the corresponding query to get displayed in postgresql(like in mysql) whenever a change is made to the table?
If you use SELECT * FROM ... there should not be any reason for your output to not include newly added columns, no matter how you get your results - would that be psql in command line, PgAdmin3 or any other IDE.
After you add new columns, it is possible that these changes are still in open transaction in other window or SQL command - be sure to COMMIT such transaction. Note that your changes to data or schema will not be visible to any other database clients until transaction commits.
If your IDE still does not show changes, maybe you need to refresh list of tables or if that option is not available, restart your IDE. If that does not work still, maybe you should use better IDE.
If you have used SELECT field1, field2, ... FROM ... then you must add new fields into your SELECT statement(s) - but this would be true for any other SQL implementation, MySQL included.
You could use the LISTEN / NOTIFY mechanism in PostgreSQL to notify your client on altering the database schema.
I'm trying to pull user data from 2 tables, one locally and one on a linked server, but I get the wrong results when querying the remote server.
I've cut my query down to
select * from SQL2.USER.dbo.people where persId = 475785
for testing and found that when I run it I get no results even though I know the person exists.
(persId is an integer, db is SQL Server 2000 and dbo.people is a table by the way)
If I copy/ paste the query and run it on the same server as the database then it works.
It only seems to affect certain user ids as running for example
select * from SQL2.USER.dbo.people where persId = 475784
works fine for the user before the one I want.
Strangely I've found that
select * from SQL2.USER.dbo.people where persId like '475785'
also works but
select * from SQL2.USER.dbo.people where persId > 475784
brings back records with persIds starting at 22519 not 475785 as I'd expect.
Hope that made sense to somebody
Any ideas ?
UPDATE:
Due to internal concerns about doing any changes to the live people table, I've temporarily moved my database so they're both on the same server and so the linked server issue doesn't apply. Once the whole lot is migrated to a separate cluster I'll be able to investigate properly. I'll update the update once this happens and I can work my way through all the suggestions. Thanks for your help.
The fact that LIKE operates is not a major clue: LIKE forces integers to string (so you can say WHERE field LIKE '2%' and you will get all records that start with a 2, even when field is of integer type). Your incorrect comparisons would lead me to think your indexes are corrupt, but you say they work when not used via the link... however, the selected index might be different depending on the use? (I seem to recall an instance when I had duplicate indexes and only one was stale, although that was too long ago to recall the exact cause).
Nevertheless, I would try rebuilding your index using the DBCC DBREINDEX (tablenname) command. If it turns out that doing so fixes your query, you may want to rebuild them all: here is a script for rebuilding them all easily.
Is dbo.people a table or a view? I've seen something similar where the underlying table schema had been changed and dropping and recreating the view fixed the problem, although the fact that the query works if run directly on the linked server does indicate something index based..
Is the linked server using the same collation? Depending on the index used, I could see something like this perhaps happening if the servers were not collation compatible, but the linked server was set up with collation compatible (which tells Sql Server it can run the query on the remote server).
I would check the following:
Check your definition on the linked server, and confirm that SQL2 is the
server you expect it to be
Check and compare the execution plans both from the remote and local servers
Try linking by IP address rather than name, to ensure you have the proper machine
Put the code into a stored procedure on the remote machine, and try calling that instead
Sounds like a bug to me - I;ve read of some issues along these lines, btu can't remember specifically what. What version of SQL Server are you running?
select * from SQL2.USER.dbo.people where persId = 475785
for a PersID which fails how does:
SELECT *
FROM OpenQuery(SQL2, 'SELECT * FROM USER.dbo.people WHERE persId = 475785')
behave?