I'm writing stored procs that are being called by a legacy system. One of the constraints of the legacy system is that there must be at least one row in the single result set returned from the stored proc. The standard is to return a zero in the first column (yes, I know!).
The obvious way to achieve this is create a temp table, put the results into it, test for any rows in the temp table and either return the results from the temp table or the single empty result.
Another way might be to do an EXISTS against the same where clause that's in the main query before the main query is executed.
Neither of these are very satisfying. Can anyone think of a better way. I was thinking down the lines of a UNION kind of like this (I'm aware this doesn't work):
--create table #test
--(
-- id int identity,
-- category varchar(10)
--)
--go
--insert #test values ('A')
--insert #test values ('B')
--insert #test values ('C')
declare #category varchar(10)
set #category = 'D'
select
id, category
from #test
where category = #category
union
select
0, ''
from #test
where ##rowcount = 0
Very few options I'm afraid.
You always have to touch the table twice, whether COUNT, EXISTS before, EXISTs in UNION, TOP clause etc
select
id, category
from mytable
where category = #category
union all --edit, of course it's quicker
select
0, ''
where NOT EXISTS (SELECT * FROM mytable where category = #category)
An EXISTS solution is better then COUNT because it will stop when it finds a row. COUNT will traverse all rows to actually count them
It's an old question, but i had the same problem.
Solution is really simple WITHOUT double select:
select top(1) WITH TIES * FROM (
select
id, category, 1 as orderdummy
from #test
where category = #category
union select 0, '', 2) ORDER BY orderdummy
by the "WITH TIES" you get ALL rows (all have a 1 as "orderdummy", so all are ties), or if there is no result, you get your defaultrow.
You can use a full outer join. Something to the effect of ...
declare #category varchar(10)
set #category = 'D'
select #test.id, ISNULL(#test.category, #category) as category from (
select
id, category
from #test
where category = #category
)
FULL OUTER JOIN (Select #category as CategoryHelper ) as EmptyHelper on 1=1
Currently performance testing this scenario myself so not sure on what kind of impact this would have but it will give you a blank row with Category populated.
This is #swe's answer, just reformatted:
CREATE FUNCTION [mail].[f_GetRecipients]
(
#MailContentCode VARCHAR(50)
)
RETURNS TABLE
AS
RETURN
(
SELECT TOP 1 WITH TIES -- Returns either all Priority 1 rows or, if none exist, all Priority 2 rows
[To],
CC,
BCC
FROM (
SELECT
[To],
CC,
BCC,
1 AS Priority
FROM mail.Recipients
WHERE 1 = 1
AND IsActive = 1
AND MailContentCode = #MailContentCode
UNION ALL
SELECT
*,
2 AS Priority
FROM (VALUES
(N'system#company.com', NULL, NULL),
(N'author#company.com', NULL, NULL)
) defaults([To], CC, BCC)
) emails
ORDER BY Priority
)
I guess you could try:
Declare #count int
set #count = 0
Begin
Select #count = Count([Column])
From //Your query
if(#Count = 0)
select 0
else //run your query
The downside is that you're effectively running your query twice, the up side is that you're skiping the temp table.
To avoid duplicating the selecting query, how about a temp table to store the query result first? And based on the temp table, return default row if the temp table is empty or return the temp when it has result?
Related
I have that query:
DECLARE #test AS varchar =
(select * from users where Usr_ID in
(select Doc_Shortstringcolumn1 from Documents where Doc_ID = 11931))
And I've got an error "Only one expression can be specified in the select list when the subquery is not introduced with EXISTS." The result of select statement are three numbers, which i need to split into three rows.
(select * from users where Usr_ID in
(select Doc_Shortstringcolumn1 from Documents where Doc_ID = 11931))
you query returns multiple rows as a result variable can not contain multiple rows value.
if your query just return one value then it will return correct result
but if you change your query like below then it will works
DECLARE #test AS varchar =
(select top 1 Doc_Shortstringcolumn1 from users where Usr_ID in
(select Doc_Shortstringcolumn1 from Documents where Doc_ID = 11931)
)
Looking at your Query, It seems that you are trying to store a table into a variable which is of Varchar data type which you cannot do in SQL Server.
There are 2 possible solutions
1.
You May select only the Required filed instead of the * ad in that case if there are more than one row is returned, then only the first one will be stored in the variable and all other values will be ignored.
If this is ok with you then you may go ahead with this approach
DECLARE #test AS varchar =
select
#test = YourColumnName
from users where Usr_ID in
(
select Doc_Shortstringcolumn1 from Documents where Doc_ID = 11931
)
2
The Second approach is to use a table variable or a Temporary table to store the values so that you can store all the values and retrieve the same when needed.
Using Temp Table
select
*
into #temp
from users where Usr_ID in
(
select Doc_Shortstringcolumn1 from Documents where Doc_ID = 11931
)
using Table Variable
DECLARE #test AS TABLE
(
Column1 VARCHAR(50),
Column2 VARCHAR(50),
Column3 VARCHAR(50)
)
INSERT INTO #Test
(
Column1,
Column2,
Column3
)
select
YourColumnName1,
YourColumnName2,
YourColumnName3
from users where Usr_ID in
(
select Doc_Shortstringcolumn1 from Documents where Doc_ID = 11931
)
I want to achieve in MS SQL something like below, using 2 tables and through join instead of iteration.
From table A, I want each row to identify from table B which in the list is their nearest value, and when value has been selected, that value cannot re-used. Please help if you've done something like this before. Thank you in advance! #SOreadyToAsk
Below is a set-based solution using CTEs and windowing functions.
The ranked_matches CTE assigns a closest match rank for each row in TableA along with a closest match rank for each row in TableB, using the index value as a tie breaker.
The best_matches CTE returns rows from ranked_matches that have the best rank (rank value 1) for both rankings.
Finally, the outer query uses a LEFT JOIN from TableA to the to the best_matches CTE to include the TableA rows that were not assigned a best match due to the closes match being already assigned.
Note that this does not return a match for the index 3 TableA row indicated in your sample results. The closes match for this row is TableB index 3, a difference of 83. However, that TableB row is a closer match to the TableA index 2 row, a difference of 14 so it was already assigned. Please clarify you question if this isn't what you want. I think this technique can be tweaked accordingly.
CREATE TABLE dbo.TableA(
[index] int NOT NULL
CONSTRAINT PK_TableA PRIMARY KEY
, value int
);
CREATE TABLE dbo.TableB(
[index] int NOT NULL
CONSTRAINT PK_TableB PRIMARY KEY
, value int
);
INSERT INTO dbo.TableA
( [index], value )
VALUES ( 1, 123 ),
( 2, 245 ),
( 3, 342 ),
( 4, 456 ),
( 5, 608 );
INSERT INTO dbo.TableB
( [index], value )
VALUES ( 1, 152 ),
( 2, 159 ),
( 3, 259 );
WITH
ranked_matches AS (
SELECT
a.[index] AS a_index
, a.value AS a_value
, b.[index] b_index
, b.value AS b_value
, RANK() OVER(PARTITION BY a.[index] ORDER BY ABS(a.Value - b.value), b.[index]) AS a_match_rank
, RANK() OVER(PARTITION BY b.[index] ORDER BY ABS(a.Value - b.value), a.[index]) AS b_match_rank
FROM dbo.TableA AS a
CROSS JOIN dbo.TableB AS b
)
, best_matches AS (
SELECT
a_index
, a_value
, b_index
, b_value
FROM ranked_matches
WHERE
a_match_rank = 1
AND b_match_rank= 1
)
SELECT
TableA.[index] AS a_index
, TableA.value AS a_value
, best_matches.b_index
, best_matches.b_value
FROM dbo.TableA
LEFT JOIN best_matches ON
best_matches.a_index = TableA.[index]
ORDER BY
TableA.[index];
EDIT:
Although this method uses CTEs, recursion is not used and is therefore not limited to 32K recursions. There may be room for improvement here from a performance perspective, though.
I don't think it is possible without a cursor.
Even if it is possible to do it without a cursor, it would definitely require self-joins, maybe more than once. As a result performance is likely to be poor, likely worse than straight-forward cursor. And it is likely that it would be hard to understand the logic and later maintain this code. Sometimes cursors are useful.
The main difficulty is this part of the question:
when value has been selected, that value cannot re-used.
There was a similar question just few days ago.
The logic is straight-forward. Cursor loops through all rows of table A and with each iteration adds one row to the temporary destination table. To determine the value to add I use EXCEPT operator that takes all values from the table B and removes from them all values that have been used before. My solution assumes that there are no duplicates in value in table B. EXCEPT operator removes duplicates. If values in table B are not unique, then temporary table would hold unique indexB instead of valueB, but main logic remains the same.
Here is SQL Fiddle.
Sample data
DECLARE #TA TABLE (idx int, value int);
INSERT INTO #TA (idx, value) VALUES
(1, 123),
(2, 245),
(3, 342),
(4, 456),
(5, 608);
DECLARE #TB TABLE (idx int, value int);
INSERT INTO #TB (idx, value) VALUES
(1, 152),
(2, 159),
(3, 259);
Main query inserts result into temporary table #TDst. It is possible to write that INSERT without using explicit variable #CurrValueB, but it looks a bit cleaner with variable.
DECLARE #TDst TABLE (idx int, valueA int, valueB int);
DECLARE #CurrIdx int;
DECLARE #CurrValueA int;
DECLARE #CurrValueB int;
DECLARE #iFS int;
DECLARE #VarCursor CURSOR;
SET #VarCursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD
FOR
SELECT idx, value
FROM #TA
ORDER BY idx;
OPEN #VarCursor;
FETCH NEXT FROM #VarCursor INTO #CurrIdx, #CurrValueA;
SET #iFS = ##FETCH_STATUS;
WHILE #iFS = 0
BEGIN
SET #CurrValueB =
(
SELECT TOP(1) Diff.valueB
FROM
(
SELECT B.value AS valueB
FROM #TB AS B
EXCEPT -- remove values that have been selected before
SELECT Dst.valueB
FROM #TDst AS Dst
) AS Diff
ORDER BY ABS(Diff.valueB - #CurrValueA)
);
INSERT INTO #TDst (idx, valueA, valueB)
VALUES (#CurrIdx, #CurrValueA, #CurrValueB);
FETCH NEXT FROM #VarCursor INTO #CurrIdx, #CurrValueA;
SET #iFS = ##FETCH_STATUS;
END;
CLOSE #VarCursor;
DEALLOCATE #VarCursor;
SELECT * FROM #TDst ORDER BY idx;
Result
idx valueA valueB
1 123 152
2 245 259
3 342 159
4 456 NULL
5 608 NULL
It would help to have the following indexes:
TableA - (idx) include (value), because we SELECT idx, value ORDER BY idx;
TableB - (value) unique, Temp destination table - (valueB) unique filtered NOT NULL, to help EXCEPT. So, it may be better to have a temporary #table for result (or permanent table) instead of table variable, because table variables can't have indexes.
Another possible method would be to delete a row from table B (from original or from a copy) as its value is inserted into result. In this method we can avoid performing EXCEPT again and again and it could be faster overall, especially if it is OK to leave table B empty in the end. Still, I don't see how to avoid cursor and processing individual rows in sequence.
SQL Fiddle
DECLARE #TDst TABLE (idx int, valueA int, valueB int);
DECLARE #CurrIdx int;
DECLARE #CurrValueA int;
DECLARE #iFS int;
DECLARE #VarCursor CURSOR;
SET #VarCursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD
FOR
SELECT idx, value
FROM #TA
ORDER BY idx;
OPEN #VarCursor;
FETCH NEXT FROM #VarCursor INTO #CurrIdx, #CurrValueA;
SET #iFS = ##FETCH_STATUS;
WHILE #iFS = 0
BEGIN
WITH
CTE
AS
(
SELECT TOP(1) B.idx, B.value
FROM #TB AS B
ORDER BY ABS(B.value - #CurrValueA)
)
DELETE FROM CTE
OUTPUT #CurrIdx, #CurrValueA, deleted.value INTO #TDst;
FETCH NEXT FROM #VarCursor INTO #CurrIdx, #CurrValueA;
SET #iFS = ##FETCH_STATUS;
END;
CLOSE #VarCursor;
DEALLOCATE #VarCursor;
SELECT
A.idx
,A.value AS valueA
,Dst.valueB
FROM
#TA AS A
LEFT JOIN #TDst AS Dst ON Dst.idx = A.idx
ORDER BY idx;
I highly believe THIS IS NOT A GOOD PRACTICE because I am bypassing the policy SQL made for itself that functions with side-effects (INSERT,UPDATE,DELETE) is a NO, but due to the fact that I want solve this without resulting to iteration options, I came up with this and gave me better view of things now.
create table tablea
(
num INT,
val MONEY
)
create table tableb
(
num INT,
val MONEY
)
I created a hard-table temp which I shall drop from time-to-time.
if((select 1 from sys.tables where name = 'temp_tableb') is not null) begin drop table temp_tableb end
select * into temp_tableb from tableb
I created a function that executes xp_cmdshell (this is where the side-effect bypassing happens)
CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[GetNearestMatch]
(
#ParamValue MONEY
)
RETURNS MONEY
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #ReturnNum MONEY
, #ID INT
SELECT TOP 1
#ID = num
, #ReturnNum = val
FROM temp_tableb ORDER BY ABS(val - #ParamValue)
DECLARE #SQL varchar(500)
SELECT #SQL = 'osql -S' + ##servername + ' -E -q "delete from test..temp_tableb where num = ' + CONVERT(NVARCHAR(150),#ID) + ' "'
EXEC master..xp_cmdshell #SQL
RETURN #ReturnNum
END
and my usage in my query simply looks like this.
-- initialize temp
if((select 1 from sys.tables where name = 'temp_tableb') is not null) begin drop table temp_tableb end
select * into temp_tableb from tableb
-- query nearest match
select
*
, dbo.GetNearestMatch(a.val) AS [NearestValue]
from tablea a
and gave me this..
I have created a temporary table to hold some values like this:
CREATE TABLE #TempCount (PendingOrders INT, OpenOrders INT, ClosedOrders INT);
I want to update the columns with a value from a SELECT statement as such:
UPDATE #TempCount
SET PendingOrders =
(
SELECT
COUNT(OrderID) AS 'PendingOrders'
FROM
dbo.Products
WHERE
OrderStatus = 1
)
However nothing seems to get updated. I expected PendingOrders to show a number but it doesn't get anything entered in. The column is empty. The same applies to the other columns - nothing gets updated.
How could I solve this?
You need a row in order to update it. Do one "initializing" INSERT first:
INSERT INTO #TempCount VALUES(0, 0, 0)
Seems to me like you need an insert statement first to generate the row.
INSERT #TempCount (PendingOrders)
SELECT COUNT(OrderID) AS 'PendingOrders'
FROM dbo.Products
WHERE OrderStatus = 1
If you just want to hold single values then consider variables
declare #PendingOrders int
set #PendingOrders = ( SELECT COUNT(OrderID)
FROM dbo.Products
WHERE OrderStatus = 1 )
select #PendingOrders, #OpenOrders, #ClosedOrders
Use this syntax:
UPDATE t
SET t.xxx=p.xxx
FROM #TempCount t, Products p
WHERE ......
Subselect is not always necessary.
I know I can create a temp table, insert records, order it and then use union afterwards, but I'm looking for alternative routes. I tried a cte, but I had to order the entire thing which doesn't work as my unioned record doesn't stay "on top".
Basically, I have at able with Id INT, Name VARCHAR(MAX) fields and I want to ORDER BY Name before I add an entry at the row[0] position in the return set. If I order after the union, the row I wanted at row[0] gets ordered with it.
Any ideas?
You were on the right track with a union query. Force the sort with static values.
select 0 sortfield, '' name, etc
union
select 1 sortfield, name, etc
from etc
order by sortfield, name.
CREATE TABLE #temp (
idnt INT IDENTITY(2) NOT NULL --This begins the identity col with a value of 2
,Id INT
,Name VARCHAR(MAX)
)
INSERT INTO #temp
SELECT
...
FROM myTable
ORDER BY Name
CREATE TABLE #tempAPPEND (
idnt INT IDENTITY(1) NOT NULL --This begins the identity col with a value of 1
,Id INT
,Name VARCHAR(MAX)
)
INSERT INTO #tempAPPEND (Id, Name)
VALUES ('34384','Pinal Dave') -- SAMPLE VALUES
SELECT * FROM #temp
UNION
SELECT * FROM #tempAPPEND
ORDER BY idnt
I have a view that has a list of jobs in it, with data like who they're assigned to and the stage they are in. I need to write a stored procedure that returns how many jobs each person has at each stage.
So far I have this (simplified):
DECLARE #ResultTable table
(
StaffName nvarchar(100),
Stage1Count int,
Stage2Count int
)
INSERT INTO #ResultTable (StaffName, Stage1Count)
SELECT StaffName, COUNT(*) FROM ViewJob
WHERE InStage1 = 1
GROUP BY StaffName
INSERT INTO #ResultTable (StaffName, Stage2Count)
SELECT StaffName, COUNT(*) FROM ViewJob
WHERE InStage2 = 1
GROUP BY StaffName
The problem with that is that the rows don't combine. So if a staff member has jobs in stage1 and stage2 there's two rows in #ResultTable. What I would really like to do is to update the row if one exists for the staff member and insert a new row if one doesn't exist.
Does anyone know how to do this, or can suggest a different approach?
I would really like to avoid using cursors to iterate on the list of users (but that's my fall back option).
I'm using SQL Server 2005.
Edit: #Lee: Unfortunately the InStage1 = 1 was a simplification. It's really more like WHERE DateStarted IS NOT NULL and DateFinished IS NULL.
Edit: #BCS: I like the idea of doing an insert of all the staff first so I just have to do an update every time. But I'm struggling to get those UPDATE statements correct.
Actually, I think you're making it much harder than it is. Won't this code work for what you're trying to do?
SELECT StaffName, SUM(InStage1) AS 'JobsAtStage1', SUM(InStage2) AS 'JobsAtStage2'
FROM ViewJob
GROUP BY StaffName
You could just check for existence and use the appropriate command. I believe this really does use a cursor behind the scenes, but it's the best you'll likely get:
IF (EXISTS (SELECT * FROM MyTable WHERE StaffName = #StaffName))
begin
UPDATE MyTable SET ... WHERE StaffName = #StaffName
end
else
begin
INSERT MyTable ...
end
SQL2008 has a new MERGE capability which is cool, but it's not in 2005.
IIRC there is some sort of "On Duplicate" (name might be wrong) syntax that lets you update if a row exists (MySQL)
Alternately some form of:
INSERT INTO #ResultTable (StaffName, Stage1Count, Stage2Count)
SELECT StaffName,0,0 FROM ViewJob
GROUP BY StaffName
UPDATE #ResultTable Stage1Count= (
SELECT COUNT(*) AS count FROM ViewJob
WHERE InStage1 = 1
#ResultTable.StaffName = StaffName)
UPDATE #ResultTable Stage2Count= (
SELECT COUNT(*) AS count FROM ViewJob
WHERE InStage2 = 1
#ResultTable.StaffName = StaffName)
To get a real "upsert" type of query you need to use an if exists... type of thing, and this unfortunately means using a cursor.
However, you could run two queries, one to do your updates where there is an existing row, then afterwards insert the new one. I'd think this set-based approach would be preferable unless you're dealing exclusively with small numbers of rows.
The following query on your result table should combine the rows again. This is assuming that InStage1 and InStage2 are never both '1'.
select distinct(rt1.StaffName), rt2.Stage1Count, rt3.Stage2Count
from #ResultTable rt1
left join #ResultTable rt2 on rt1.StaffName=rt2.StaffName and rt2.Stage1Count is not null
left join #ResultTable rt3 on rt1.StaffName=rt2.StaffName and rt3.Stage2Count is not null
I managed to get it working with a variation of BCS's answer. It wouldn't let me use a table variable though, so I had to make a temp table.
CREATE TABLE #ResultTable
(
StaffName nvarchar(100),
Stage1Count int,
Stage2Count int
)
INSERT INTO #ResultTable (StaffName)
SELECT StaffName FROM ViewJob
GROUP BY StaffName
UPDATE #ResultTable SET
Stage1Count= (
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ViewJob V
WHERE InStage1 = 1 AND
V.StaffName = #ResultTable.StaffName COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS
GROUP BY V.StaffName),
Stage2Count= (
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM ViewJob V
WHERE InStage2 = 1 AND
V.StaffName = #ResultTable.StaffName COLLATE Latin1_General_CI_AS
GROUP BY V.StaffName)
SELECT StaffName, Stage1Count, Stage2Count FROM #ResultTable
DROP TABLE #ResultTable