Brief history:
I'm writing a stored procedure to support a legacy reporting system (using SQL Server Reporting Services 2000) on a legacy web application.
In keeping with the original implementation style, each report has a dedicated stored procedure in the database that performs all the querying necessary to return a "final" dataset that can be rendered simply by the report server.
Due to the business requirements of this report, the returned dataset has an unknown number of columns (it depends on the user who executes the report, but may have 4-30 columns).
Throughout the stored procedure, I keep a column UserID to track the user's ID to perform additional querying. At the end, however, I do something like this:
UPDATE #result
SET Name = ppl.LastName + ', ' + ppl.FirstName
FROM #result r
LEFT JOIN Users u ON u.id = r.userID
LEFT JOIN People ppl ON ppl.id = u.PersonID
ALTER TABLE #result
DROP COLUMN [UserID]
SELECT * FROM #result r ORDER BY Name
Effectively I set the Name varchar column (that was previously left NULL while I was performing some pivot logic) to the desired name format in plain text.
When finished, I want to drop the UserID column as the report user shouldn't see this.
Finally, the data set returned has one column for the username, and an arbitrary number of INT columns with performance totals. For this reason, I can't simply exclude the UserID column since SQL doesn't support "SELECT * EXCEPT [UserID]" or the like.
With this known (any style pointers are appreciated but not central to this problem), here's the problem:
When I execute this stored procedure, I get an execution error:
Invalid column name 'userID'.
However, if I comment out my DROP COLUMN statement and retain the UserID, the stored procedure performs correctly.
What's going on? It certainly looks like the statements are executing out of order and it's dropping the column before I can use it to set the name strings!
[Edit 1]
I defined UserID previously (the whole stored procedure is about 200 lies of mostly irrelevant logic, so I'll paste snippets:
CREATE TABLE #result ([Name] NVARCHAR(256), [UserID] INT);
Case sensitivity isn't the problem but did point me to the right line - there was one place in which I had userID instead of UserID. Now that I fixed the case, the error message complains about UserID.
My "broken" stored procedure also works properly in SQL Server 2008 - this is either a 2000 bug or I'm severely misunderstanding how SQL Server used to work.
Thanks everyone for chiming in!
For anyone searching this in the future, I've added an extremely crude workaround to be 2000-compatible until we update our production version:
DECLARE #workaroundTableName NVARCHAR(256), #workaroundQuery NVARCHAR(2000)
SET #workaroundQuery = 'SELECT [Name]';
DECLARE cur_workaround CURSOR FOR
SELECT COLUMN_NAME FROM [tempdb].INFORMATION_SCHEMA.Columns WHERE TABLE_NAME LIKE '#result%' AND COLUMN_NAME <> 'UserID'
OPEN cur_workaround;
FETCH NEXT FROM cur_workaround INTO #workaroundTableName
WHILE ##FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
SET #workaroundQuery = #workaroundQuery + ',[' + #workaroundTableName + ']'
FETCH NEXT FROM cur_workaround INTO #workaroundTableName
END
CLOSE cur_workaround;
DEALLOCATE cur_workaround;
SET #workaroundQuery = #workaroundQuery + ' FROM #result ORDER BY Name ASC'
EXEC(#workaroundQuery);
Thanks everyone!
A much easier solution would be to not drop the column, but don't return it in the final select.
There are all sorts of reasons why you shouldn't be returning select * from your procedure anyway.
EDIT: I see now that you have to do it this way because of an unknown number of columns.
Based on the error message, is the database case sensitive, and so there's a difference between userID and UserID?
This works for me:
CREATE TABLE #temp_t
(
myInt int,
myUser varchar(100)
)
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(1, 'Jon1')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(2, 'Jon2')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(3, 'Jon3')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(4, 'Jon4')
ALTER TABLE #temp_t
DROP Column myUser
SELECT * FROM #temp_t
DROP TABLE #temp_t
It says invalid column for you. Did you check the spelling and ensure there even exists that column in your temp table.
You might try wrapping everything preceding the DROP COLUMN in a BEGIN...COMMIT transaction.
At compile time, SQL Server is probably expanding the * into the full list of columns. Thus, at run time, SQL Server executes "SELECT UserID, Name, LastName, FirstName, ..." instead of "SELECT *". Dynamically assembling the final SELECT into a string and then EXECing it at the end of the stored procedure may be the way to go.
Related
I have a Table in my Database Which have name of all the Database of my Server
Table Look like
create Table #db_name_list(Did INT IDENTITY(1,1), DNAME NVARCHAR(100))
INSERT INTO #db_name_list
SELECT 'db_One ' UNION ALL
SELECT 'db_Two' UNION ALL
SELECT 'db_Three' UNION ALL
SELECT 'db_four' UNION ALL
SELECT 'db_five'
select * from #db_name_list
I have so many SP in my Database..Which uses multiple table and Join Them..
At Present I am using the SQL code like
Select Column from db_One..Table1
Left outer join db_two..Table2
on ....some Condition ....
REQUIREMENT
But I do not want to HARDCODE the DATABASE Name ..
I want store DataBase name in Variable and use that .
Reason :: I want to restore same Database with Different name and want to Run those SP..At Present we Cant Do ,Because I have used db_One..Table1
or db_two..Table2
I want some thing like ...
/SAMPLE SP/
CREATE PROCEDURE LOAD_DATA
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #dbname nvarchar(500)
set #dbname=( SELECT DNAME FROM #db_name_list WHERE Did=1)
set #dbname2=( SELECT DNAME FROM #db_name_list WHERE Did=2)
PRINT #DBNAME
SELECT * FROM #dbname..table1
/* or */
SELECT * FROM #dbname2.dbo.table1
END
i.e using Variable Instead of Database name ..
But it thow error
"Incorrect syntax near '.'."
P.S This was posted by some else on msdn but the answer there was not clear & I had the same kind of doubt. So please help
You can't use a variable like this in a static sql query. You have to use the variable in dynamic sql instead, in order to build the query you want to execute, like:
DECLARE #sql nvarchar(500) = 'SELECT * FROM ' + #dbname + '.dbo.mytable'
EXEC(#sql);
There seem to be a couple of options for you depending on your circumstances.
1. Simple - Generalise your procedures
Simply take out the database references in your stored procedure, as there is no need to have an explicit reference to the database if it is running against the database it is stored in. Your select queries will look like:
SELECT * from schema.table WHERE x = y
Rather than
SELECT * from database.schema.table WHERE x = y
Then just create the stored procedure in the new database and away you go. Simply connect to the new database and run the SP. This method would also allow you to promote the procedure to being a system stored procedure, which would mean they were automatically available in every database without having to run CREATE beforehand. For more details, see this article.
2. Moderate - Dynamic SQL
Change your stored procedure to take a database name as a parameter, such as this example:
CREATE PROCEDURE example (#DatabaseName VARCHAR(200))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #SQL VARCHAR(MAX) = 'SELECT * FROM ['+#DatabaseName+'].schema.table WHERE x = y'
EXEC (#SQL)
END
It looks like #temptables created using dynamic SQL via the EXECUTE string method have a different scope and can't be referenced by "fixed" SQLs in the same stored procedure.
However, I can reference a temp table created by a dynamic SQL statement in a subsequence dynamic SQL but it seems that a stored procedure does not return a query result to a calling client unless the SQL is fixed.
A simple 2 table scenario:
I have 2 tables. Let's call them Orders and Items. Order has a Primary key of OrderId and Items has a Primary Key of ItemId. Items.OrderId is the foreign key to identify the parent Order. An Order can have 1 to n Items.
I want to be able to provide a very flexible "query builder" type interface to the user to allow the user to select what Items he want to see. The filter criteria can be based on fields from the Items table and/or from the parent Order table. If an Item meets the filter condition including and condition on the parent Order if one exists, the Item should be return in the query as well as the parent Order.
Usually, I suppose, most people would construct a join between the Item table and the parent Order tables. I would like to perform 2 separate queries instead. One to return all of the qualifying Items and the other to return all of the distinct parent Orders. The reason is two fold and you may or may not agree.
The first reason is that I need to query all of the columns in the parent Order table and if I did a single query to join the Orders table to the Items table, I would be repoeating the Order information multiple times. Since there are typically a large number of items per Order, I'd like to avoid this because it would result in much more data being transfered to a fat client. Instead, as mentioned, I would like to return the two tables individually in a dataset and use the two tables within to populate a custom Order and child Items client objects. (I don't know enough about LINQ or Entity Framework yet. I build my objects by hand). The second reason I would like to return two tables instead of one is because I already have another procedure that returns all of the Items for a given OrderId along with the parent Order and I would like to use the same 2-table approach so that I could reuse the client code to populate my custom Order and Client objects from the 2 datatables returned.
What I was hoping to do was this:
Construct a dynamic SQL string on the Client which joins the orders table to the Items table and filters appropriate on each table as specified by the custom filter created on the Winform fat-client app. The SQL build on the client would have looked something like this:
TempSQL = "
INSERT INTO #ItemsToQuery
OrderId, ItemsId
FROM
Orders, Items
WHERE
Orders.OrderID = Items.OrderId AND
/* Some unpredictable Order filters go here */
AND
/* Some unpredictable Items filters go here */
"
Then, I would call a stored procedure,
CREATE PROCEDURE GetItemsAndOrders(#tempSql as text)
Execute (#tempSQL) --to create the #ItemsToQuery table
SELECT * FROM Items WHERE Items.ItemId IN (SELECT ItemId FROM #ItemsToQuery)
SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE Orders.OrderId IN (SELECT DISTINCT OrderId FROM #ItemsToQuery)
The problem with this approach is that #ItemsToQuery table, since it was created by dynamic SQL, is inaccessible from the following 2 static SQLs and if I change the static SQLs to dynamic, no results are passed back to the fat client.
3 around come to mind but I'm look for a better one:
1) The first SQL could be performed by executing the dynamically constructed SQL from the client. The results could then be passed as a table to a modified version of the above stored procedure. I am familiar with passing table data as XML. If I did this, the stored proc could then insert the data into a temporary table using a static SQL that, because it was created by dynamic SQL, could then be queried without issue. (I could also investigate into passing the new Table type param instead of XML.) However, I would like to avoid passing up potentially large lists to a stored procedure.
2) I could perform all the queries from the client.
The first would be something like this:
SELECT Items.* FROM Orders, Items WHERE Order.OrderId = Items.OrderId AND (dynamic filter)
SELECT Orders.* FROM Orders, Items WHERE Order.OrderId = Items.OrderId AND (dynamic filter)
This still provides me with the ability to reuse my client sided object-population code because the Orders and Items continue to be returned in two different tables.
I have a feeling to, that I might have some options using a Table data type within my stored proc, but that is also new to me and I would appreciate a little bit of spoon feeding on that one.
If you even scanned this far in what I wrote, I am surprised, but if so, I woul dappreciate any of your thoughts on how to accomplish this best.
You first need to create your table first then it will be available in the dynamic SQL.
This works:
CREATE TABLE #temp3 (id INT)
EXEC ('insert #temp3 values(1)')
SELECT *
FROM #temp3
This will not work:
EXEC (
'create table #temp2 (id int)
insert #temp2 values(1)'
)
SELECT *
FROM #temp2
In other words:
Create temp table
Execute proc
Select from temp table
Here is complete example:
CREATE PROC prTest2 #var VARCHAR(100)
AS
EXEC (#var)
GO
CREATE TABLE #temp (id INT)
EXEC prTest2 'insert #temp values(1)'
SELECT *
FROM #temp
1st Method - Enclose multiple statements in the same Dynamic SQL Call:
DECLARE #DynamicQuery NVARCHAR(MAX)
SET #DynamicQuery = 'Select * into #temp from (select * from tablename) alias
select * from #temp
drop table #temp'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicQuery
2nd Method - Use Global Temp Table:
(Careful, you need to take extra care of global variable.)
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..##temp2') IS NULL
BEGIN
EXEC (
'create table ##temp2 (id int)
insert ##temp2 values(1)'
)
SELECT *
FROM ##temp2
END
Don't forget to delete ##temp2 object manually once your done with it:
IF (OBJECT_ID('tempdb..##temp2') IS NOT NULL)
BEGIN
DROP Table ##temp2
END
Note: Don't use this method 2 if you don't know the full structure on database.
I had the same issue that #Muflix mentioned. When you don't know the columns being returned, or they are being generated dynamically, what I've done is create a global table with a unique id, then delete it when I'm done with it, this looks something like what's shown below:
DECLARE #DynamicSQL NVARCHAR(MAX)
DECLARE #DynamicTable VARCHAR(255) = 'DynamicTempTable_' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(36), NEWID())
DECLARE #DynamicColumns NVARCHAR(MAX)
--Get "#DynamicColumns", example: SET #DynamicColumns = '[Column1], [Column2]'
SET #DynamicSQL = 'SELECT ' + #DynamicColumns + ' INTO [##' + #DynamicTable + ']' +
' FROM [dbo].[TableXYZ]'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicSQL
SET #DynamicSQL = 'IF OBJECT_ID(''tempdb..##' + #DynamicTable + ''' , ''U'') IS NOT NULL ' +
' BEGIN DROP TABLE [##' + #DynamicTable + '] END'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicSQL
Certainly not the best solution, but this seems to work for me.
I would strongly suggest you have a read through http://www.sommarskog.se/arrays-in-sql-2005.html
Personally I like the approach of passing a comma delimited text list, then parsing it with text to table function and joining to it. The temp table approach can work if you create it first in the connection. But it feel a bit messier.
Result sets from dynamic SQL are returned to the client. I have done this quite a lot.
You're right about issues with sharing data through temp tables and variables and things like that between the SQL and the dynamic SQL it generates.
I think in trying to get your temp table working, you have probably got some things confused, because you can definitely get data from a SP which executes dynamic SQL:
USE SandBox
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE usp_DynTest(#table_type AS VARCHAR(255))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #sql AS VARCHAR(MAX) = 'SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_TYPE = ''' + #table_type + ''''
EXEC (#sql)
END
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'BASE TABLE'
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'VIEW'
GO
DROP PROCEDURE usp_DynTest
GO
Also:
USE SandBox
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE usp_DynTest(#table_type AS VARCHAR(255))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #sql AS VARCHAR(MAX) = 'SELECT * INTO #temp FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_TYPE = ''' + #table_type + '''; SELECT * FROM #temp;'
EXEC (#sql)
END
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'BASE TABLE'
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'VIEW'
GO
DROP PROCEDURE usp_DynTest
GO
I have a a number of sp's that create a temporary table #TempData with various fields. Within these sp's I call some processing sp that operates on #TempData. Temp data processing depends on sp input parameters. SP code is:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[tempdata_proc]
#ID int,
#NeedAvg tinyint = 0
AS
BEGIN
SET NOCOUNT ON;
if #NeedAvg = 1
Update #TempData set AvgValue = 1
Update #TempData set Value = -1;
END
Then, this sp is called in outer sp with the following code:
USE [BN]
--GO
--DBCC FREEPROCCACHE;
GO
Create table #TempData
(
tele_time datetime
, Value float
--, AvgValue float
)
Create clustered index IXTemp on #TempData(tele_time);
insert into #TempData(tele_time, Value ) values( GETDATE(), 50 ); --sample data
declare
#ID int,
#UpdAvg int;
select
#ID = 1000,
#UpdAvg = 1
;
Exec dbo.tempdata_proc #ID, #UpdAvg ;
select * from #TempData;
drop table #TempData
This code throws an error: Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Procedure tempdata_proc, Line 8: Invalid column name "AvgValue".
But if only I uncomment declaration AvgValue float - everything works OK.
The question: is there any workaround letting the stored proc code remain the same and providing a tip to the optimizer - skip this because AvgValue column will not be used by the sp due to params passed.
Dynamic SQL is not a welcomed solution BTW. Using alternative to #TempData tablename is undesireable solution according to existing tsql code (huge modifications necessary for that).
Tried SET FMTONLY, tempdb.tempdb.sys.columns, try-catch wrapping without any success.
The way that stored procedures are processed is split into two parts - one part, checking for syntactical correctness, is performed at the time that the stored procedure is created or altered. The remaining part of compilation is deferred until the point in time at which the store procedure is executed. This is referred to as Deferred Name Resolution and allows a stored procedure to include references to tables (not just limited to temp tables) that do not exist at the point in time that the procedure is created.
Unfortunately, when it comes to the point in time that the procedure is executed, it needs to be able to compile all of the individual statements, and it's at this time that it will discover that the table exists but that the column doesn't - and so at this time, it will generate an error and refuse to run the procedure.
The T-SQL language is unfortunately a very simplistic compiler, and doesn't take runtime control flow into account when attempting to perform the compilation. It doesn't analyse the control flow or attempt to defer the compilation in conditional paths - it just fails the compilation because the column doesn't (at this time) exist.
Unfortunately, there aren't any mechanisms built in to SQL Server to control this behaviour - this is the behaviour you get, and anything that addresses it is going to be perceived as a workaround - as evidenced already by the (valid) suggestions in the comments - the two main ways to deal with it are to use dynamic SQL or to ensure that the temp table always contains all columns required.
One way to workaround your concerns about maintenance if you go down the "all uses of the temp table should have all columns" is to move the column definitions into a separate stored procedure, that can then augment the temporary table with all of the required columns - something like:
create procedure S_TT_Init
as
alter table #TT add Column1 int not null
alter table #TT add Column2 varchar(9) null
go
create procedure S_TT_Consumer
as
insert into #TT(Column1,Column2) values (9,'abc')
go
create procedure S_TT_User
as
create table #TT (tmp int null)
exec S_TT_Init
insert into #TT(Column1) values (8)
exec S_TT_Consumer
select Column1 from #TT
go
exec S_TT_User
Which produces the output 8 and 9. You'd put your temp table definition in S_TT_Init, S_TT_Consumer is the inner query that multiple stored procedures call, and S_TT_User is an example of one such stored procedure.
Create the table with the column initially. If you're populating the TEMP table with SPROC output just make it an IDENTITY INT (1,1) so the columns line up with your output.
Then drop the column and re-add it as the appropriate data type later on in the SPROC.
The only (or maybe best) way i can thing off beyond dynamic SQL is using checks for database structure.
if exists (Select 1 From tempdb.sys.columns Where object_id=OBJECT_ID('tempdb.dbo.#TTT') and name = 'AvgValue')
begin
--do something AvgValue related
end
maybe create a simple function that takes table name and column or only column if its always #TempTable and retursn 1/0 if the column exists, would be useful in the long run i think
if dbo.TempTableHasField('AvgValue')=1
begin
-- do something AvgValue related
end
EDIT1: Dang, you are right, sorry about that, i was sure i had ... this.... :( let me thing a bit more
I'm updating a table and adding data on the changes using the TSQL OUTPUT clause. The problem is that the updated table only contains normalised IDs for the data I want to output and I need it in human readable form. Here's a simplified example to show what I mean
CREATE TABLE LOCATION
(locationid INT, name VARCHAR(50))
CREATE TABLE USER
(userid INT, username VARCHAR(50), locationid INT)
--insert some test data
UPDATE USER
SET locationid = #somevalue
WHERE userid = #someothervalue
I know I can add something like
OUTPUT inserted.username
+ ' location changed from ' + deleted.locationid
+ ' to ' + inserted.locationid
but that's no use to the end user who wants to know the location name, not its database ID.
I tried replacing deleted.locationid with (SELECT name from LOCATION WHERE locationid = deleted.locationid), and similarly for inserted.locationid and was met with the error Subqueries are not allowed in the OUTPUT clause
I've seen a couple of answers saying joins are allowed in OUTPUT clauses, but I haven't found a way to join separately on inserted and deleted. Is this possible in a single step in SQL Server 2008 R2, or will I need to do it via an intermediate step of storing the old and new values then joining in a second query for the output I need?
Following Microsoft article Output clearly describes the limitations of output clause in any DML operations like insert, update and delete.
It also describes that you can't use subquery with output clause
So here you can records the locationid from inserted and deleted row and in a table variable and can further get the location name using join with Location table
Example
INSERT INTO location VALUES(1,'Delhi')
INSERT INTO location VALUES(2,'Noida')
INSERT INTO [USER] VALUES(1,'Sandeep',1)
DECLARE #result table(UserName varchar(50), OldLocationId Int,NewLocaionId Int)
UPDATE [USER] SET locationid=2
OUTPUT INSERTED.UserName, DELETED.locationid,INSERTED.locationid INTO #result
WHERE userid=1
SELECT * FROM #result
Why not:
OUTPUT inserted.username
+ ' location changed from ' + deleted.name + ' to ' + inserted.name
Union your join and delete into a subquery and join on it.
If I try to execute the following code, I get the errors
Msg 207, Level 16, State 1, Line 3 Invalid column name 'Another'. Msg
207, Level 16, State 1, Line 4 Invalid column name 'Another'.
even though the predicate for both IF statements always evaluates to false.
CREATE TABLE #Foo (Bar INT)
GO
IF (1=0)
BEGIN
SELECT Another FROM #Foo
END
GO
IF (1=0)
BEGIN
ALTER TABLE #Foo ADD Another INT
SELECT Another FROM #Foo
END
GO
DROP TABLE #Foo
This is probably over-simplified for the sake of the example; in reality what I need to do is select the values from a column, but only if the column exists. If it doesn't exist, I don't care about it. In the problem that drove me to ask this question, my predicate was along the lines of EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.columns WHERE object_id = #ID AND name = #Name). Is there a way to achieve this without resorting to my arch-enemy Dynamic SQL? I understand that my SQL must always be well-formed (i.e. conform to grammar) - even within a block that's never executed - but I'm flabbergasted that I'm also being forced to make it semantically correct too!
EDIT:
Though I'm not sure the code below adds much to the code above, it's a further example of the problem. In this scenario, I only want to set the value of Definitely (which definitely exists as a column) with the value from Maybe (which maybe exists as a column) if Maybe exists.
IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.columns WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID('dbo.TableName', 'U') AND name = 'Maybe')
BEGIN
UPDATE dbo.TableName SET Definitely = Maybe
END
SQL Server doesn't execute line by line. It isn't procedural like .net or Java code. So there is no "non-executed block"
The batch is compiled in one go. At this point, the column doesn't exist but it knows the table will be. Table does not have a column called "Another". Fail.
Exactly as expected.
Now, what is the real problem you are trying to solve?
Some options:
2 tables or one table with both columns
use Stored procedures to decouple scope
not use temp tables (maybe not needed; it could be your procedural thinking...)
dynamic SQL (from Mitch's deleted answer)
Edit, after comment;
Why not hide schema changes behind a view, rather than changing all code to work with columns that may/may not be there?
You can use EXEC to handle it. It's not really dynamic SQL if the code never actually changes.
For example:
CREATE TABLE dbo.Test (definitely INT NOT NULL)
INSERT INTO dbo.Test (definitely) VALUES (1), (2), (3)
IF EXISTS (SELECT *
FROM sys.columns
WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID('dbo.Test', 'U') AND
name = 'Maybe')
BEGIN
EXEC('UPDATE dbo.Test SET definitely = maybe')
END
SELECT * FROM dbo.Test
ALTER TABLE dbo.Test ADD maybe INT NOT NULL DEFAULT 999
IF EXISTS (SELECT *
FROM sys.columns
WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID('dbo.Test', 'U') AND
name = 'Maybe')
BEGIN
EXEC('UPDATE dbo.Test SET definitely = maybe')
END
SELECT * FROM dbo.Test
DROP TABLE dbo.Test
You can also try Martin Smith's "Workaround" using a non-existing table to get "deferred name resolution" for columns.
I had the same issue.
We are creating a script for all changes for years and this is the first time that we have this issue.
I've tried all your answers and didn't find the issue.
In my case it was because of temporary table within the script that I'm using also within a stored procedure, although every sentence has go.
I've found that if I'm adding if exists with drop to the temporary table after the script is using the temporary table, it is working correctly.
Best regards,
Chen
Derived from the answer by #gbn.
What i did to solve the issue was to use 'GO' between the ALTER query and the query that uses the column added by ALTER. This will make the 2 queries to be run as separate batches thereby ensuring your 'Another' column is there before the SELECT query.