I want to have the column "CurrentCapacity" to be the SUM of all references specific column.
Lets say there are three rows in SecTable which all have FirstTableID = 1. Size values are 1, 1 and 3.
The row in FirstTable which have ID = 1 should now have a value of 5 in the CurrentCapacity column.
How can I make this and how to do automatically on insert, update and delete?
Thanks!
FirstTable
+----+-------------+-------------------------+
| ID | MaxCapacity | CurrentCapacity |
+----+-------------+-------------------------+
| 1 | 5 | 0 (desired result = 5) |
+----+-------------+-------------------------+
| 2 | 5 | 0 |
+----+-------------+-------------------------+
| 3 | 5 | 0 |
+----+-------------+-------------------------+
SecTable
+----+-------------------+------+
| ID | FirstTableID (FK) | Size |
+----+-------------------+------+
| 1 | 1 | 2 |
+----+-------------------+------+
| 2 | 1 | 3 |
+----+-------------------+------+
In general, a view is a better solution than trying to keep a calculated column up-to-date. For your example, you could use this:
CREATE VIEW capacity AS
SELECT f.ID, f.MaxCapacity, COALESCE(SUM(s.Size), 0) AS CurrentCapacity
FROM FirstTable f
LEFT JOIN SecTable s ON s.FirstTableID = f.ID
GROUP BY f.ID, f.MaxCapacity
Then you can simply
SELECT *
FROM capacity
to get the results you desire. For your sample data:
ID MaxCapacity CurrentCapacity
1 5 5
2 5 0
3 5 0
Demo on SQLFiddle
Got this question to work with this trigger:
CREATE TRIGGER UpdateCurrentCapacity
ON SecTable
AFTER INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE
AS
BEGIN
SET NOCOUNT ON
DECLARE #Iteration INT
SET #Iteration = 1
WHILE #Iteration <= 100
BEGIN
UPDATE FirstTable SET FirstTable.CurrentCapacity = (SELECT COALESCE(SUM(SecTable.Size),0) FROM SecTable WHERE FirstTableID = #Iteration) WHERE ID = #Iteration;
SET #Iteration = #Iteration + 1
END
END
GO
Personally, I would not use a trigger either or store CurrentCapacity as a value since it breaks Normalization rules for database design. You have a relation and can already get the results by creating a view or setting CurrentCapacity to a calculated column.
Your view can look like this:
SELECT Id, MaxCapacity, ISNULL(O.SumSize,0) AS CurrentCapacity
FROM dbo.FirstTable FT
OUTER APPLY
(
SELECT ST.FirstTableId, SUM(ST.Size) as SumSize FROM SecTable ST
WHERE ST.FirstTableId = FT.Id
GROUP BY ST.FirstTableId
) O
Sure, you could fire a proc every time a row is updated/inserted or deleted in the second table and recalculate the column, but you might as well calculate it on the fly. If it's not required to have the column accurate, you can have a job update the values every X hours. You could combine this with your view to have both a "live" and "cached" version of the capacity data.
Related
SQL Server 2016
I have a number of tables
Table A Table B Table C Table D
User | DataA User | DataB User | DataC User | DataD
=========== =========== =================== =============
1 | 10 1 | 'hello' 4 | '2020-01-01' 1 | 0.34
2 | 20 2 | 'world'
3 | 30
So some users have data for A,B,C and/or D.
Table UserEnabled
User | A | B | C | D
=============================
1 | 1 | 1 | 0 | 0
2 | 1 | 1 | 0 | 0
3 | 1 | 0 | 0 | 0
4 | 0 | 0 | 1 | 0
Table UserEnabled indicates whether we are interested in any of the data in the corresponding tables A,B,C and/or D.
Now I want to join those tables on User but I do only want the columns where the UserEnabled table has at least one user with a 1 (ie at least one user enabled). Ideally I only want to join the tables that are enabled and not filter the columns from the disabled tables afterwards.
So as a result for all users I would get
User | DataA | DataB | DataC
===============================
1 | 10 | 'hello' | NULL
2 | 20 | 'world' | NULL
3 | 30 | NULL | NULL
4 | NULL | NULL | '2020-01-01'
No user has D enabled so it does not show up in a query
I was going to come up with a dynamic SQL that's built every time I execute the query depending on the state of UserEnabled but I'm afraid this is going to perform poorly on a huge data set as the execution plan will need to be created every time. I want to dynamically display only the enabled data, not columns with all NULL.
Is there another way?
Usage will be a data sheet that may be generated up to a number of times per minute.
You have no choice but to approach this through dynamic SQL. A select query has a fixed set of columns defined when the query is created. No such thing as "variable" columns.
What can you do? One method is to "play a trick". Store the columns as JSON (or XML) and delete the empty columns.
Another method is to create a view that has the specific logic you need. I think you can maintain this view by altering it in a trigger, based on when data in the enabled table changes. That said, altering the view requires dynamic SQL so the code will not be pretty.
Just because I thought this could be fun.
Example
Declare #Col varchar(max) = ''
Declare #Src varchar(max) = ''
Select #Col = #Col+','+Item+'.[Data'+Item+']'
,#Src = #Src+'Left Join [Table'+Item+'] '+Item+' on U.[User]=['+Item+'].[User] and U.['+Item+']=1'+char(13)
From (
Select Item
From ( Select A=max(A)
,B=max(B)
,C=max(C)
,D=max(D)
From UserEnabled
Where 1=1 --<< Use any Key Inital Filter Condition Here
) A
Unpivot ( value for item in (A,B,C,D)) B
Where Value=1
) A
Declare #SQL varchar(max) = '
Select U.[User]'+#Col+'
From #UserEnabled U
'+#Src
--Print #SQL
Exec(#SQL)
Returns
User DataA DataB DataC
1 10 Hello NULL
2 20 World NULL
3 30 NULL NULL
4 NULL NULL 2020-01-01
The Generated SQL
Select A.[User],A.[DataA],B.[DataB],C.[DataC]
From UserEnabled U
Left Join TableA A on U.[User]=[A].[User] and U.[A]=1
Left Join TableB B on U.[User]=[B].[User] and U.[B]=1
Left Join TableC C on U.[User]=[C].[User] and U.[C]=1
If all the relations are 1:1, you can make one query with
...
FROM u
LEFT JOIN a ON u.id = a.u_id
LEFT JOIN b ON u.id = b.u_id
LEFT JOIN c ON u.id = c.u_id
LEFT JOIN d ON u.id = d.u_id
...
and use display logic on the client to omit the irrelevant columns.
If more than one relation is 1:N, then you'd likely have to do multiple queries anyway to prevent N1xN2 results.
I have 2 tables A and B. I need to update a column in table A for all userid's based on the count of records that userid has in another table based on defined rules. If count of records in another table is 3 and is required for that userID, then mark IsCorrect as 1 else 0, if count is 2 and required is 5 then IsCorrect as 0 For e.g. Below is what I am trying to achieve
Table A
UserID | Required | IsCorrect
----------------------------------
1 | SO;GO;PE | 1
2 | SO;GO;PE;PR | 0
3 | SO;GO;PE | 1
Table B
UserID | PPName
-----------------------
1 | SO
1 | GO
1 | PE
2 | SO
2 | GO
3 | SO
3 | GO
3 | PE
I tried using Update in table joining another table, but cannot up with one. Also, do not want to use cursors, because of its overhead. I know I will have to create a stored Procedure for it for the rules, but how to pass the userID's to it without cursor is what am i am looking for.
This is an update for my earlier question. Thanks for the help.
Here's a solution for PostgreSQL:
update TableA
set IsCorrect =
case when
string_to_array(Required, ';') <#
(select array_agg(PPName)
from TableB
where TableA.UserID = TableB.UserID)
then 1
else 0
end;
You can also see it live on SQL Fiddle.
use sub-query and aggregate function and then case when for conditional update
update TableA A
set A.IsCorrect= case when T.cnt>=3 then 1 else 0 end
inner join
(
select B.UserID ,count(*) as cnt from TableB as B
group by UserID
) as T
on A.userid=T.UserID
I have 2 tables A and B. I need to update a column in table A for all userid's based on the count of records that userid has in another table based on defined rules. If count of records in another table is 3 and is required for that userID, then mark IsCorrect as 1 else 0, if count is 2 and required is 5 then IsCorrect as 0 For e.g. Below is what I am trying to achieve
Table A
UserID | Required | IsCorrect
----------------------------------
1 | SO;GO;PE | 1
2 | SO;GO;PE;PR | 0
3 | SO;GO;PE | 1
Table B
UserID | PPName
-----------------------
1 | SO
1 | GO
1 | PE
2 | SO
2 | GO
3 | SO
3 | GO
3 | PE
I tried using Update in table joining another table, but cannot up with one. Also, do not want to use cursors, because of its overhead. I know I will have to create a stored Procedure for it for the rules, but how to pass the userID's to it without cursor is what am i am looking for.
Thanks for the help. Apologies for not formatting the table correctly :)
update A
set IsCorrect = case
when Required <= (select count(*) from B where b.UserID = A.UserID)
then 'Y' -- or 0, or whatever sense is appropriate
else 'N'
end
THIS ANSWERS THE ORIGINAL QUESTION.
Hmmm, you can use a correlated subquery and some case logic:
update a
set iscorrect = (case when required <=
(select count(*) from b where b.userid = a.userid)
then 1 else 0
end);
I have a temp table #table in my stored procedure that looks like this:
AgtID | Bonus
-------------
5063 | 0
1104 | 0
And a table bonus that looks like this:
AgtID | Contest | Points | Event
--------------------------------
5063 | 21 | 1000 | 1
5063 | 21 | 3000 | 3
1104 | 21 | 1000 | 1
1104 | 21 | 500 | 2
And an update query (currently) like thus:
UPDATE tt
SET Bonus = b.Points
FROM #table tt
INNER JOIN tblContestData_Bonus b
ON tt.AgtID = b.AgtID
where ContestID = 21;
Currently, when I run this query, it'll overwrite whatever data is in #table.Bonus with the data in bonus.Points. This is fine for a single record, but as we start getting more bonus point events, I need to have it add to my value.
I know some languages have a i += value... does SQL have something similar?
I figured it out right after posting. Funny how that works. What I did:
UPDATE tt
SET Bonus = coalesce(
(select SUM(Points) as Points
from bonus b
where b.AgtID = tt.AgtID
and ContestID = 21
group by AgtID),0)
FROM #table tt;
Using the coalesce() to account for null values to math in following steps works fine even if there are no records.
I might be missing what you're after here, but you can add the existing value to the new value in an UPDATE:
UPDATE tt
SET Bonus = b.Points + Bonus
FROM #table tt
INNER JOIN tblContestData_Bonus b
ON tt.AgtID = b.AgtID
where ContestID = 21;
To do this properly in SQL, you need to pre-aggregate b. You cannot update a single record multiple times, so an update will does not accumulate when there are multiple matches. It only updates on (arbitrary) record.
Something like this will take all the bonus points and add them in:
UPDATE tt
SET Bonus = coalesce(tt.Bonus, 0) + b.Points
FROM #table tt INNER JOIN
(select agtId, sum(points) as points
from tblContestData_Bonus b
group by abtId
) b
ON tt.AgtID = b.AgtID
where ContestID = 21;
I have two tables - let's call them dbo.ValuesToReduce and dbo.Reserve
The data in the first table (dbo.ValuesToReduce) is:
ValuesToReduceId | PartnerId | Value
-------------------------------------
1 | 1 | 53.15
2 | 2 | 601.98
3 | 1 | 91.05
4 | 2 | 44.56
5 | 3 | 19.11
The second table (dbo.Reserve) looks like this
ReserveId | PartnerId | Value
-------------------------------
1 | 1 | -101.55
2 | 2 | -425.19
3 | 3 | -28.17
What I need to do is: update the Values in ValuesToReduce table using the latter table of Reserves, reducing the numbers until the reserve supply is exhausted. Here's what I should get after running the script:
ValuesToReduceId | PartnerId | Value
-------------------------------------
1 | 1 | 0.00
2 | 2 | 176.79
3 | 1 | 42.65
4 | 2 | 44.56
5 | 3 | 0.00
ReserveId | PartnerId | Value
-------------------------------
1 | 1 | 0.00
2 | 2 | 0.00
3 | 3 | -9.06
So basically, every partner has a "reserve" which he can deplete, and values in the value table should be reduced by partner accordingly if there is still something in the reserves. Reserves should be collocated in the order provided by ValuesToReduceId.
For partner with PartnerId of 1, you can see that he had enough reserve to update his first value to 0 and still had some left to reduce the second value by that amount.
Partner with ID of 2 had a reserve of 425.19, and there were two entries in the values table for that partner, 601.98 and 44.56, in that order (by ValuesToReduceId), so we only updated the first value since the reserve is not big enough for both. The wrong way would have been to update the second value to 0.00 and the first to 221.35.
Partner with ID of 3 has more than enough reserve, so after updating his value to 0, he's left with -9.06
I tried something with recursive cte, but I can't seem to get my head around it.
Hope I described the problem clearly enough..
You cannot, as far as I know, update two tables in a single select statement.
But you could do this in SQL using a WHILE loop. Search for the first transaction, then carry it out, until there are no possible transactions left.
declare #valid int
declare #resid int
declare #val float
while 1 = 1
begin
select top 1
#resid = r.ReserveId
, #valid = v.ValuesToReduceId
, #val = CASE WHEN -r.Value > v.Value THEN v.Value ELSE -r.Value END
from ValuesToReduce v
inner join Reserves r on r.PartnerId = v.PartnerId
where r.Value < 0 and v.Value > 0
order by r.ReserveId
if ##rowcount = 0
break
update ValuesToReduce
set Value = Value - #val
where ValuesToReduceId = #valid
update Reserves
set Value = Value + #val
where ReserveId = #resid
end
Here's code to create test tables:
create table ValuesToReduce (
ValuesToReduceId int,
PartnerId int,
Value float
)
insert into ValuesToReduce values (1,1,53.15)
insert into ValuesToReduce values (2,2,601.98)
insert into ValuesToReduce values (3,1,91.05)
insert into ValuesToReduce values (4,2,44.56)
insert into ValuesToReduce values (5,3,19.11)
create table Reserves (
ReserveId int,
PartnerId int,
Value float
)
insert into Reserves values (1,1,-101.55)
insert into Reserves values (2,2,-425.19)
insert into Reserves values (3,3,-28.17)