inset into exec dbo.sp_executesql (multiple statement string) - sql

I use this code:
select #SQLString=N'select ....(long select query).....'
+ char(10) + '; drop table _item_list '
and afterwards
insert #tbl EXEC dbo.sp_executesql #SQLString
It seems to be working, but can someone give me some clear info on this? I was expecting the executesql thing to have to be "faithful", as in related in its entirety, to the insert statement preceding it. It seems however that it has no problem feeding the select to the insert, and doing the drop table independently. Also, is the ; before the drop necessary?

You have many ways to populate data to a table:
INSERT INTO TABLE VALUES
SELECT INTO FROM
INSERT INTO SELECT
INSERT INTO EXEC <-- what you are talking about
And the ; is not very necessary, just to separate batch, the result will be the same, but for some may need to consider scope, such as batch or session, then it matters.
UPDATE:
That is fine with irrelevant statements afterward of the select, even there are more than one select in your USP, but you have to make sure all the returned results (the select statement) need to be compatible with the table definition that you are referring to.

Related

dynamic sql not working . Regular sql working [duplicate]

It looks like #temptables created using dynamic SQL via the EXECUTE string method have a different scope and can't be referenced by "fixed" SQLs in the same stored procedure.
However, I can reference a temp table created by a dynamic SQL statement in a subsequence dynamic SQL but it seems that a stored procedure does not return a query result to a calling client unless the SQL is fixed.
A simple 2 table scenario:
I have 2 tables. Let's call them Orders and Items. Order has a Primary key of OrderId and Items has a Primary Key of ItemId. Items.OrderId is the foreign key to identify the parent Order. An Order can have 1 to n Items.
I want to be able to provide a very flexible "query builder" type interface to the user to allow the user to select what Items he want to see. The filter criteria can be based on fields from the Items table and/or from the parent Order table. If an Item meets the filter condition including and condition on the parent Order if one exists, the Item should be return in the query as well as the parent Order.
Usually, I suppose, most people would construct a join between the Item table and the parent Order tables. I would like to perform 2 separate queries instead. One to return all of the qualifying Items and the other to return all of the distinct parent Orders. The reason is two fold and you may or may not agree.
The first reason is that I need to query all of the columns in the parent Order table and if I did a single query to join the Orders table to the Items table, I would be repoeating the Order information multiple times. Since there are typically a large number of items per Order, I'd like to avoid this because it would result in much more data being transfered to a fat client. Instead, as mentioned, I would like to return the two tables individually in a dataset and use the two tables within to populate a custom Order and child Items client objects. (I don't know enough about LINQ or Entity Framework yet. I build my objects by hand). The second reason I would like to return two tables instead of one is because I already have another procedure that returns all of the Items for a given OrderId along with the parent Order and I would like to use the same 2-table approach so that I could reuse the client code to populate my custom Order and Client objects from the 2 datatables returned.
What I was hoping to do was this:
Construct a dynamic SQL string on the Client which joins the orders table to the Items table and filters appropriate on each table as specified by the custom filter created on the Winform fat-client app. The SQL build on the client would have looked something like this:
TempSQL = "
INSERT INTO #ItemsToQuery
OrderId, ItemsId
FROM
Orders, Items
WHERE
Orders.OrderID = Items.OrderId AND
/* Some unpredictable Order filters go here */
AND
/* Some unpredictable Items filters go here */
"
Then, I would call a stored procedure,
CREATE PROCEDURE GetItemsAndOrders(#tempSql as text)
Execute (#tempSQL) --to create the #ItemsToQuery table
SELECT * FROM Items WHERE Items.ItemId IN (SELECT ItemId FROM #ItemsToQuery)
SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE Orders.OrderId IN (SELECT DISTINCT OrderId FROM #ItemsToQuery)
The problem with this approach is that #ItemsToQuery table, since it was created by dynamic SQL, is inaccessible from the following 2 static SQLs and if I change the static SQLs to dynamic, no results are passed back to the fat client.
3 around come to mind but I'm look for a better one:
1) The first SQL could be performed by executing the dynamically constructed SQL from the client. The results could then be passed as a table to a modified version of the above stored procedure. I am familiar with passing table data as XML. If I did this, the stored proc could then insert the data into a temporary table using a static SQL that, because it was created by dynamic SQL, could then be queried without issue. (I could also investigate into passing the new Table type param instead of XML.) However, I would like to avoid passing up potentially large lists to a stored procedure.
2) I could perform all the queries from the client.
The first would be something like this:
SELECT Items.* FROM Orders, Items WHERE Order.OrderId = Items.OrderId AND (dynamic filter)
SELECT Orders.* FROM Orders, Items WHERE Order.OrderId = Items.OrderId AND (dynamic filter)
This still provides me with the ability to reuse my client sided object-population code because the Orders and Items continue to be returned in two different tables.
I have a feeling to, that I might have some options using a Table data type within my stored proc, but that is also new to me and I would appreciate a little bit of spoon feeding on that one.
If you even scanned this far in what I wrote, I am surprised, but if so, I woul dappreciate any of your thoughts on how to accomplish this best.
You first need to create your table first then it will be available in the dynamic SQL.
This works:
CREATE TABLE #temp3 (id INT)
EXEC ('insert #temp3 values(1)')
SELECT *
FROM #temp3
This will not work:
EXEC (
'create table #temp2 (id int)
insert #temp2 values(1)'
)
SELECT *
FROM #temp2
In other words:
Create temp table
Execute proc
Select from temp table
Here is complete example:
CREATE PROC prTest2 #var VARCHAR(100)
AS
EXEC (#var)
GO
CREATE TABLE #temp (id INT)
EXEC prTest2 'insert #temp values(1)'
SELECT *
FROM #temp
1st Method - Enclose multiple statements in the same Dynamic SQL Call:
DECLARE #DynamicQuery NVARCHAR(MAX)
SET #DynamicQuery = 'Select * into #temp from (select * from tablename) alias
select * from #temp
drop table #temp'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicQuery
2nd Method - Use Global Temp Table:
(Careful, you need to take extra care of global variable.)
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..##temp2') IS NULL
BEGIN
EXEC (
'create table ##temp2 (id int)
insert ##temp2 values(1)'
)
SELECT *
FROM ##temp2
END
Don't forget to delete ##temp2 object manually once your done with it:
IF (OBJECT_ID('tempdb..##temp2') IS NOT NULL)
BEGIN
DROP Table ##temp2
END
Note: Don't use this method 2 if you don't know the full structure on database.
I had the same issue that #Muflix mentioned. When you don't know the columns being returned, or they are being generated dynamically, what I've done is create a global table with a unique id, then delete it when I'm done with it, this looks something like what's shown below:
DECLARE #DynamicSQL NVARCHAR(MAX)
DECLARE #DynamicTable VARCHAR(255) = 'DynamicTempTable_' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(36), NEWID())
DECLARE #DynamicColumns NVARCHAR(MAX)
--Get "#DynamicColumns", example: SET #DynamicColumns = '[Column1], [Column2]'
SET #DynamicSQL = 'SELECT ' + #DynamicColumns + ' INTO [##' + #DynamicTable + ']' +
' FROM [dbo].[TableXYZ]'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicSQL
SET #DynamicSQL = 'IF OBJECT_ID(''tempdb..##' + #DynamicTable + ''' , ''U'') IS NOT NULL ' +
' BEGIN DROP TABLE [##' + #DynamicTable + '] END'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicSQL
Certainly not the best solution, but this seems to work for me.
I would strongly suggest you have a read through http://www.sommarskog.se/arrays-in-sql-2005.html
Personally I like the approach of passing a comma delimited text list, then parsing it with text to table function and joining to it. The temp table approach can work if you create it first in the connection. But it feel a bit messier.
Result sets from dynamic SQL are returned to the client. I have done this quite a lot.
You're right about issues with sharing data through temp tables and variables and things like that between the SQL and the dynamic SQL it generates.
I think in trying to get your temp table working, you have probably got some things confused, because you can definitely get data from a SP which executes dynamic SQL:
USE SandBox
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE usp_DynTest(#table_type AS VARCHAR(255))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #sql AS VARCHAR(MAX) = 'SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_TYPE = ''' + #table_type + ''''
EXEC (#sql)
END
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'BASE TABLE'
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'VIEW'
GO
DROP PROCEDURE usp_DynTest
GO
Also:
USE SandBox
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE usp_DynTest(#table_type AS VARCHAR(255))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #sql AS VARCHAR(MAX) = 'SELECT * INTO #temp FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_TYPE = ''' + #table_type + '''; SELECT * FROM #temp;'
EXEC (#sql)
END
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'BASE TABLE'
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'VIEW'
GO
DROP PROCEDURE usp_DynTest
GO

How to change output of stored procedure on the fly in this query?

I am trying to achieve something which I think is simply, but yet the syntax escapes me
Here's the query:
SET #T02_IDENTIFIANT_DSC = 'Hello ' + #Compagnie + ' '
INSERT INTO #TableDonnees
EXEC THE_DATABASE..spHeader #ValDate, #ValDate, '65', #T02_IDENTIFIANT_DSC, #RecCount
spHeader returns a record with two rows. How could I catch the value of one of the rows, modify it, then proceed to the INSERT ?
Thanks
Insert it into a temporary table, or a table variable. Make certain that the stored procedure supplies a way to identify the 'first' row. ORDER BY on a SELECT means nothing during insertion (in other words, it's not guaranteed, because it's not important to the machine).

How do I insert the results from "EXEC()" in a temp table

I need som help with a problem, our company have a vendor that deliver a database to us. inside that database, the vendor has a table with alot of t sql scripts. What i want to do is the following, i want to make a select to find the script and then execut the script and store the result in a variable or temp tabel. I can not alter the script from the vedor, so I need the result into something i can manupilate. Another problem is that i dont know how many columns ther result will have. So it has to be flexible. Like one script have 5 columns and and the next script has 8 and so on.
exsample:
DECLARE #SQL nvarchar(MAX) = ( Select distinct script_details
from scripttable where .......)
This will give me the script I want to use, then I use
EXEC(#SQL)
to execute the script.
Then my problem is, the result from this I want into a variable or a table.
I have tryed to make a temp table like this:
create table #TmpTblSP (col1 varchar(MAX),col2 varchar(MAX),col3 varchar(MAX),col4 varchar(MAX),col5 varchar(MAX),col6 varchar(MAX),col7 varchar(MAX),col8 varchar(MAX),col9 varchar(MAX),col10 varchar(MAX),col11 varchar(MAX),col12 varchar(MAX))
then
insert into #TmpTblSP
EXEC(#SQL)
This gives me the following error:
Msg 213, Level 16, State 7, Line 1
Column name or number of supplied values does not match table definition.
But if i know how many columns there are and specify that into the insert it works.
insert into #TmpTblSP(Col1,Col2,Col3)
EXEC(#SQL)
But here you se my problem, I dont know how many columns there are in every script. I could make one script for every script the vendor has, but that will be alot, it's like 3000 scripts in that table and they change them often.
You could try something like:
DECLARE #SQL nvarchar(MAX) = (
Select distinct script_details
into #temptbl
from scripttable where .......
);
EXEC(#SQL);
If you don't know how many columns yous #sql gives then the only solution is use SELECT INTO. I use it in this way:
DECLARE #QRY nvarchar(MAX) = ( Select distinct script_details
from scripttable where .......)
SET #sql = 'SELECT * into ' + #temptablename + ' FROM (' + #qry + ') A '
It gives some flexibility
Remember that it is easy to check structure of the table created in this way in sys so you can build another #SQL from this info if needed.
I this as well recommended to split "SELECT INTO" to 2 parts
One is
SELECT INTO ......... WHERE 1=2
Second
INSERT INTO SELECT ......
Creation of table locks all DB. So it is good to create it as fast as possible and then insert into it.

Is my stored procedure executing out of order?

Brief history:
I'm writing a stored procedure to support a legacy reporting system (using SQL Server Reporting Services 2000) on a legacy web application.
In keeping with the original implementation style, each report has a dedicated stored procedure in the database that performs all the querying necessary to return a "final" dataset that can be rendered simply by the report server.
Due to the business requirements of this report, the returned dataset has an unknown number of columns (it depends on the user who executes the report, but may have 4-30 columns).
Throughout the stored procedure, I keep a column UserID to track the user's ID to perform additional querying. At the end, however, I do something like this:
UPDATE #result
SET Name = ppl.LastName + ', ' + ppl.FirstName
FROM #result r
LEFT JOIN Users u ON u.id = r.userID
LEFT JOIN People ppl ON ppl.id = u.PersonID
ALTER TABLE #result
DROP COLUMN [UserID]
SELECT * FROM #result r ORDER BY Name
Effectively I set the Name varchar column (that was previously left NULL while I was performing some pivot logic) to the desired name format in plain text.
When finished, I want to drop the UserID column as the report user shouldn't see this.
Finally, the data set returned has one column for the username, and an arbitrary number of INT columns with performance totals. For this reason, I can't simply exclude the UserID column since SQL doesn't support "SELECT * EXCEPT [UserID]" or the like.
With this known (any style pointers are appreciated but not central to this problem), here's the problem:
When I execute this stored procedure, I get an execution error:
Invalid column name 'userID'.
However, if I comment out my DROP COLUMN statement and retain the UserID, the stored procedure performs correctly.
What's going on? It certainly looks like the statements are executing out of order and it's dropping the column before I can use it to set the name strings!
[Edit 1]
I defined UserID previously (the whole stored procedure is about 200 lies of mostly irrelevant logic, so I'll paste snippets:
CREATE TABLE #result ([Name] NVARCHAR(256), [UserID] INT);
Case sensitivity isn't the problem but did point me to the right line - there was one place in which I had userID instead of UserID. Now that I fixed the case, the error message complains about UserID.
My "broken" stored procedure also works properly in SQL Server 2008 - this is either a 2000 bug or I'm severely misunderstanding how SQL Server used to work.
Thanks everyone for chiming in!
For anyone searching this in the future, I've added an extremely crude workaround to be 2000-compatible until we update our production version:
DECLARE #workaroundTableName NVARCHAR(256), #workaroundQuery NVARCHAR(2000)
SET #workaroundQuery = 'SELECT [Name]';
DECLARE cur_workaround CURSOR FOR
SELECT COLUMN_NAME FROM [tempdb].INFORMATION_SCHEMA.Columns WHERE TABLE_NAME LIKE '#result%' AND COLUMN_NAME <> 'UserID'
OPEN cur_workaround;
FETCH NEXT FROM cur_workaround INTO #workaroundTableName
WHILE ##FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
SET #workaroundQuery = #workaroundQuery + ',[' + #workaroundTableName + ']'
FETCH NEXT FROM cur_workaround INTO #workaroundTableName
END
CLOSE cur_workaround;
DEALLOCATE cur_workaround;
SET #workaroundQuery = #workaroundQuery + ' FROM #result ORDER BY Name ASC'
EXEC(#workaroundQuery);
Thanks everyone!
A much easier solution would be to not drop the column, but don't return it in the final select.
There are all sorts of reasons why you shouldn't be returning select * from your procedure anyway.
EDIT: I see now that you have to do it this way because of an unknown number of columns.
Based on the error message, is the database case sensitive, and so there's a difference between userID and UserID?
This works for me:
CREATE TABLE #temp_t
(
myInt int,
myUser varchar(100)
)
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(1, 'Jon1')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(2, 'Jon2')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(3, 'Jon3')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(4, 'Jon4')
ALTER TABLE #temp_t
DROP Column myUser
SELECT * FROM #temp_t
DROP TABLE #temp_t
It says invalid column for you. Did you check the spelling and ensure there even exists that column in your temp table.
You might try wrapping everything preceding the DROP COLUMN in a BEGIN...COMMIT transaction.
At compile time, SQL Server is probably expanding the * into the full list of columns. Thus, at run time, SQL Server executes "SELECT UserID, Name, LastName, FirstName, ..." instead of "SELECT *". Dynamically assembling the final SELECT into a string and then EXECing it at the end of the stored procedure may be the way to go.

SQL clone record with a unique index

Is there a clean way of cloning a record in SQL that has an index(auto increment). I want to clone all the fields except the index. I currently have to enumerate every field, and use that in an insert select, and I would rather not explicitly list all of the fields, as they may change over time.
Not unless you want to get into dynamic SQL. Since you wrote "clean", I'll assume not.
Edit: Since he asked for a dynamic SQL example, I'll take a stab at it. I'm not connected to any databases at the moment, so this is off the top of my head and will almost certainly need revision. But hopefully it captures the spirit of things:
-- Get list of columns in table
SELECT INTO #t
EXEC sp_columns #table_name = N'TargetTable'
-- Create a comma-delimited string excluding the identity column
DECLARE #cols varchar(MAX)
SELECT #cols = COALESCE(#cols+',' ,'') + COLUMN_NAME FROM #t WHERE COLUMN_NAME <> 'id'
-- Construct dynamic SQL statement
DECLARE #sql varchar(MAX)
SET #sql = 'INSERT INTO TargetTable (' + #cols + ') ' +
'SELECT ' + #cols + ' FROM TargetTable WHERE SomeCondition'
PRINT #sql -- for debugging
EXEC(#sql)
There's no easy and clean way that I can think of off the top of my head, but from a few items in your question I'd be concerned about your underlying architecture. Maybe you have an absolutely legitimate reason for wanting to do this, but usually you want to try to avoid duplicates in a database, not make them easier to cause. Also, explicitly naming columns is usually a good idea. If you're linking to outside code, it makes sure that you don't break that link when you add a new column. If you're not (and it sounds like you probably aren't in this scenario) I still prefer to have the columns listed out because it forces me to review the effects of the change/new column - even if it's just to look at the code and decide that adding the new column is not a problem.
DROP TABLE #tmp_MyTable
SELECT * INTO #tmp_MyTable
FROM MyTable
WHERE MyIndentID = 165
ALTER TABLE #tmp_MyTable
DROP Column MyIndentID
INSERT INTO MyTable
SELECT *
FROM #tmp_MyTable
This also deals with a unique key projectnum as well as the primary key.
CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE projecttemp SELECT * FROM project WHERE projectid='6';
ALTER TABLE projecttemp DROP COLUMN projectid;
UPDATE projecttemp SET projectnum = CONCAT(projectnum, ' CLONED');
INSERT INTO project SELECT NULL,projecttemp.* FROM projecttemp;
You could create an insert trigger to do this, however, you would lose the ability to do an insert with an explicit ID. It would, instead, always use the value from the sequence.
You could create a trigger to do it for you. To make sure that trigger only works for cloning, you could create a separate username CLONE and log in with it. Or, even better, if your DBMS supports it, create a role named CLONE and any user can log in using that role and do the cloning. The trigger code would be something like:
if (CURRENT_ROLE = 'CLONE') then
new.ID = assign new id from generator/sequence
Of course, you would grant that role only to the users who are allowed to clone records.