SQL Server - Issue with UPDATE inside while loop in a function? - sql

I have one table and I am willing to fill two columns with values generated using other column value using function.
NOTE: I am working with a .mdf file in Visual Studio and not SQL Server.
Like if EmployeeName is 'XYZ' then Password will be 'XYZ#123' and mailid will be 'XYZ#gmail.com'
Here is the procedure
CREATE FUNCTION [dbo].[fnTempSetAllEmployeeMailIdAndEmployeePassword]()
RETURNS #OutputTable TABLE
(
EmployeeName NVARCHAR(250),
TempEmployeeMailId NVARCHAR(250),
TempEmployeePassword NVARCHAR(250)
)
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #Initialiser INT = 1, #NumberOfRowsInTable INT, #TempEmployeeId INT, #TempEmployeeName NVARCHAR(250);
SELECT #NumberOfRowsInTable = COUNT(*)
FROM tbEmployee;
WHILE(#Initialiser <= #NumberOfRowsInTable)
BEGIN
SELECT
#TempEmployeeName = [EmployeeName],
#TempEmployeeId = [EmployeeId]
FROM
(SELECT
ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY [EmployeeId] ASC) AS ROwNumber,
[EmployeeId], [EmployeeName]
FROM
tbEmployee) AS TempTable
WHERE
RowNumber = #Initialiser;
UPDATE tbEmployee
SET [EmployeeMailId] = LOWER(#TempEmployeeName) + '#gmail.com',
[EmployeePassword] = LOWER(#TempEmployeeName) + '#123'
WHERE [EmployeeId] = #TempEmployeeId;
SET #Initialiser = #Initialiser + 1;
END
INSERT #OutputTable
SELECT [EmployeeName], [EmployeeMailId], [EmployeePassword]
FROM tbEmployee;
RETURN
END
The problem is the above statements works when I execute in new query file.
But when I put in function and try to update it. I will not save and says something went wrong when executing.
But saves when I comment the UPDATE command.
Is it problem with Update being in while loop?

There are a couple of things going on here.
Firstly, the reason that it doesn't work in a function is because in SQL Server functions cannot change anything in the database. You are attempting to change the data in the table and that isn't allowed. It would be allowed in a stored procedure.
Secondly, it looks like a pretty inefficient way of doing the update. For each iteration of the loop this code:
grabs all the employees, sorts them
takes a single row and updates it
inserts that row into a table variable to later output
As a starting point, try just updating every single row in the table in one go:
CREATE PROCEDURE dbo.TempSetAllEmployeeMailIdAndEmployeePassword AS
BEGIN
UPDATE tbEmployee
SET [EmployeeMailId] = LOWER(#TempEmployeeName) + '#gmail.com',
[EmployeePassword] = LOWER(#TempEmployeeName) + '#123';
SELECT EmployeeName, EmployeeMailID, EmployeePassword
FROM tblEmployee;
END
If it turns out that you have problems because there are too many rows that you're trying to update at once, then maybe you could look at batching, but that's probably a separate topic.

Related

Enumerate the multiple rows in a multi-update Trigger

I have something like the table below:
CREATE TABLE updates (
id INT PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY (1, 1),
name VARCHAR (50) NOT NULL,
updated DATETIME
);
And I'm updating it like so:
INSERT INTO updates (name, updated)
VALUES
('fred', '2020-11-11),
('fred', '2020-11-11'),
...
('bert', '2020-11-11');
I need to write an after update Trigger and enumerate all the name(s) that were added and add each one to another table but can't work out how enumerate each one.
EDIT: - thanks to those who pointed me in the right direction, I know very little SQL.
What I need to do is something like this
foreach name in inserted
look it up in another table and
retrieve a count of the updates a 'name' has done
add 1 to the count
and update it back into the other table
I can't get to my laptop at the moment, but presumably I can do something like:
BEGIN
SET #count = (SELECT UCount from OTHERTAB WHERE name = ins.name)
SET #count = #count + 1
UPDATE OTHERTAB SET UCount = #count WHERE name = ins.name
SELECT ins.name
FROM inserted ins;
END
and that would work for each name in the update?
Obviously I'll have to read up on set based SQL processing.
Thanks all for the help and pointers.
Based on your edits you would do something like the following... set based is a mindset, so you don't need to compute the count in advance (in fact you can't). It's not clear whether you are counting in the same table or another table - but I'm sure you can work it out.
Points:
Use the Inserted table to determine what rows to update
Use a sub-query to calculate the new value if its a second table, taking into account the possibility of null
If you are really using the same table, then this should work
BEGIN
UPDATE OTHERTAB SET
UCount = COALESCE(UCount,0) + 1
WHERE [name] in (
SELECT I.[name]
FROM Inserted I
);
END;
If however you are using a second table then this should work:
BEGIN
UPDATE OTHERTAB SET
UCount = COALESCE((SELECT UCount+1 from OTHERTAB T2 WHERE T2.[name] = OTHERTAB.[name]),0)
WHERE [name] in (
SELECT I.[name]
FROM Inserted I
);
END;
Using inserted and set-based approach(no need for loop):
CREATE TRIGGER trg
ON updates
AFTER INSERT
AS
BEGIN
INSERT INTO tab2(name)
SELECT name
FROM inserted;
END

SQL Stored Procedure Simultaneously Call Issue

I have stored procedure in the sql server 2008, my stored procedure calculate and get the last number "not primary key" from column from table B and add one ( +1 ) to this number to use it on the next statement on the same stored procedure.
My issue that i have a duplicate number some times, i think this happened when multiple users call the stored procedure on the same time. is this the issue and how can i solve it
my code is like the below:-
DECLARE #ID AS NVARCHAR(10)
SET #ID = (
SELECT TOP 1 MyNo
FROM Employee
WHERE (
(TypeID = #TypeID) AND
(Year = #Year)
)
ORDER BY ID DESC
)
SET #ID = ISNULL(#ID,0) + 1
INSERT INTO Employee (name,lname,MyNo) VALUES (#name,#lname,#MyNo)
You can lock a table for the duration of a transaction with the WITH (TABLOCKX, HOLDLOCK) syntax:
BEGIN TRANSACTION
DECLARE #ID AS NVARCHAR(10)
SET #ID = (
SELECT TOP 1 MyNo
FROM Employee WITH (TABLOCKX, HOLDLOCK)
WHERE (
(TypeID = #TypeID) AND
(Year = #Year)
)
ORDER BY ID DESC
)
SET #ID = ISNULL(#ID,0) + 1
INSERT INTO Employee (name,lname,MyNo) VALUES (#name,#lname,#MyNo)
COMMIT TRANSACTION
You can find more information about TABLOCK and TABLOCKX here:
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/t-sql/queries/hints-transact-sql-table
Per discussion, the best lock to use in this case would be:
(UPDLOCK,HOLDLOCK)
If you cannot use Identity column or the Table lock, another alternative is to use sp_getapplock
The advantage with this mechanism is that this kind of lock can be used across multiple stored procedures that should not run concurrently or for operations that span multiple tables. It also allows for handling timeout and other kinds of behavior if the lock is not available.
You have to be careful when using this feature and ensure you acquire and release locks properly or you will create more problems than you solve.

Create a function for generating random number in SQL Server trigger

I have to create a function in a SQL Server trigger for generating random numbers after insert. I want to update the column with that generated random number please help what I have missed in my code.
If you know other ways please suggest a way to complete my task.
This my SQL Server trigger:
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[trgEnquiryMaster]
ON [dbo].[enquiry_master]
AFTER INSERT
AS
declare #EnquiryId int;
declare #ReferenceNo varchar(50);
declare #GenReferenceNo NVARCHAR(MAX);
select #EnquiryId = i.enquiry_id from inserted i;
select #ReferenceNo = i.reference_no from inserted i;
BEGIN
SET #GenReferenceNo = 'CREATE FUNCTION functionRandom (#Reference VARCHAR(MAX) )
RETURNS VARCHAR(MAX)
As
Begin
DECLARE #r varchar(8);
SELECT #r = coalesce(#r, '') + n
FROM (SELECT top 8
CHAR(number) n FROM
master..spt_values
WHERE type = P AND
(number between ascii(0) and ascii(9)
or number between ascii(A) and ascii(Z)
or number between ascii(a) and ascii(z))
ORDER BY newid()) a
RETURNS #r
END
'
EXEC(#GenReferenceNo)
-- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from
-- interfering with SELECT statements.
SET NOCOUNT ON
-- update statements for trigger here
UPDATE enquiry_master
SET reference_no ='updated'
WHERE enquiry_id = #EnquiryId
END
To generate random numbers, just call CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM which was introduced in SQL Server 2008:
SELECT CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM(5) AS [Hex],
CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM(5), 2) AS [HexStringWithout0x],
CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM(10)) AS [Translated-ASCII],
CONVERT(NVARCHAR(20), CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM(20)) AS [Translated-UCS2orUTF16]
returns:
Hex HexStringWithout0x Translated-ASCII Translated-UCS2orUTF16
0x4F7D9ABBC4 0ECF378A7A ¿"bü<ݱØï 붻槬㟰添䛺⯣왚꒣찭퓚
If you are ok with just 0 - 9 and A - F, then the CONVERT(VARCHAR(20), CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM(5), 2) is all you need.
Please see my answer on DBA.StackExchange on a similar question for more details:
Password generator function
The UPDATE statement shown in the "Update" section of that linked answer is what you want, just remove the WHERE condition and add the JOIN to the Inserted pseudo-table.
The query should look something like the following:
DECLARE #Length INT = 10;
UPDATE em
SET em.[reference_no] = rnd.RandomValue
FROM dbo.enquiry_master em
INNER JOIN Inserted ins
ON ins.enquiry_id = em.enquiry_id
CROSS APPLY dbo.GenerateReferenceNo(CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM((em.[enquiry_id] % 1) + #Length)) rnd;
And since the function is slightly different, here is how it should be in order to get both upper-case and lower-case letters:
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.GenerateReferenceNo(#RandomValue VARBINARY(20))
RETURNS TABLE
WITH SCHEMABINDING
AS RETURN
WITH base(item) AS
(
SELECT NULL UNION ALL SELECT NULL UNION ALL SELECT NULL UNION ALL
SELECT NULL UNION ALL SELECT NULL UNION ALL SELECT NULL
), items(item) AS
(
SELECT NULL
FROM base b1
CROSS JOIN base b2
)
SELECT (
SELECT TOP (LEN(#RandomValue))
SUBSTRING('1234567890QWERTYUIOPASDFGHJKLZXCVBNMqwertyuiopasdfghjklzxcvbnm',
(CONVERT(TINYINT, SUBSTRING(#RandomValue, 1, 1)) % 62) + 1,
1) AS [text()]
FROM items
FOR XML PATH('')
) AS [RandomReferenceNo];
GO
And please follow the usage shown above, passing in CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM((em.[enquiry_id] % 1) + #Length), not: CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM(#RefferenceNOLength).
Other notes:
#marc_s already explained the one-row vs multiple-rows flaw and how to fix that.
not only is a trigger not the place to create a new object (i.e. the function), that function wouldn't have worked anyway since the call to newid() (in the ORDER BY) is not allowed in a function.
You don't need to issue two separate SELECTs to set two different variables. You could do the following:
SELECT #EnquiryId = i.enquiry_id,
#ReferenceNo = i.reference_no
FROM TableName i;
Passing strings into a function requires quoting those strings inside of single-quotes: ASCII('A') instead of ASCII(A).
UPDATE
The full Trigger definition should be something like the following:
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[trgEnquiryMaster]
ON [dbo].[enquiry_master]
AFTER INSERT
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #Length INT = 10;
UPDATE em
SET em.[reference_no] = rnd.RandomValue
FROM dbo.enquiry_master em
INNER JOIN Inserted ins
ON ins.enquiry_id = em.enquiry_id
CROSS APPLY dbo.GenerateReferenceNo(
CRYPT_GEN_RANDOM((em.[enquiry_id] % 1) + #Length)
) rnd;
END;
A trigger should be very nimble and quick - it is no place to do heavy and time-intensive processing, and definitely no place to create new database objects since (a) the trigger is executed in the context of the code causing it to fire, and (b) you cannot control when and how often the trigger is fired.
You need to
define and create your function to generate that random value during database setup - once, before any operations are executed on the database
rewrite your trigger to take into account that multiple rows could be inserted at once, and in that case, the Inserted table will contain multiple rows which all have to be handled.
So your trigger will look something like this (with several assumptions by me - e.g. that enquiry_id is the primary key on your table - you need this to establish the INNER JOIN between your data table and the Inserted pseudo table:
ALTER TRIGGER [dbo].[trgEnquiryMaster]
ON [dbo].[enquiry_master]
AFTER INSERT
AS
-- SET NOCOUNT ON added to prevent extra result sets from
-- interfering with SELECT statements.
SET NOCOUNT ON
-- update statements for trigger here
UPDATE enq
SET reference_no = dbo.GenerateRandomValue(.....)
FROM enquiry_master enq
INNER JOIN inserted i ON enq.enquiry_id = i.enquiry_id

Is my stored procedure executing out of order?

Brief history:
I'm writing a stored procedure to support a legacy reporting system (using SQL Server Reporting Services 2000) on a legacy web application.
In keeping with the original implementation style, each report has a dedicated stored procedure in the database that performs all the querying necessary to return a "final" dataset that can be rendered simply by the report server.
Due to the business requirements of this report, the returned dataset has an unknown number of columns (it depends on the user who executes the report, but may have 4-30 columns).
Throughout the stored procedure, I keep a column UserID to track the user's ID to perform additional querying. At the end, however, I do something like this:
UPDATE #result
SET Name = ppl.LastName + ', ' + ppl.FirstName
FROM #result r
LEFT JOIN Users u ON u.id = r.userID
LEFT JOIN People ppl ON ppl.id = u.PersonID
ALTER TABLE #result
DROP COLUMN [UserID]
SELECT * FROM #result r ORDER BY Name
Effectively I set the Name varchar column (that was previously left NULL while I was performing some pivot logic) to the desired name format in plain text.
When finished, I want to drop the UserID column as the report user shouldn't see this.
Finally, the data set returned has one column for the username, and an arbitrary number of INT columns with performance totals. For this reason, I can't simply exclude the UserID column since SQL doesn't support "SELECT * EXCEPT [UserID]" or the like.
With this known (any style pointers are appreciated but not central to this problem), here's the problem:
When I execute this stored procedure, I get an execution error:
Invalid column name 'userID'.
However, if I comment out my DROP COLUMN statement and retain the UserID, the stored procedure performs correctly.
What's going on? It certainly looks like the statements are executing out of order and it's dropping the column before I can use it to set the name strings!
[Edit 1]
I defined UserID previously (the whole stored procedure is about 200 lies of mostly irrelevant logic, so I'll paste snippets:
CREATE TABLE #result ([Name] NVARCHAR(256), [UserID] INT);
Case sensitivity isn't the problem but did point me to the right line - there was one place in which I had userID instead of UserID. Now that I fixed the case, the error message complains about UserID.
My "broken" stored procedure also works properly in SQL Server 2008 - this is either a 2000 bug or I'm severely misunderstanding how SQL Server used to work.
Thanks everyone for chiming in!
For anyone searching this in the future, I've added an extremely crude workaround to be 2000-compatible until we update our production version:
DECLARE #workaroundTableName NVARCHAR(256), #workaroundQuery NVARCHAR(2000)
SET #workaroundQuery = 'SELECT [Name]';
DECLARE cur_workaround CURSOR FOR
SELECT COLUMN_NAME FROM [tempdb].INFORMATION_SCHEMA.Columns WHERE TABLE_NAME LIKE '#result%' AND COLUMN_NAME <> 'UserID'
OPEN cur_workaround;
FETCH NEXT FROM cur_workaround INTO #workaroundTableName
WHILE ##FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
SET #workaroundQuery = #workaroundQuery + ',[' + #workaroundTableName + ']'
FETCH NEXT FROM cur_workaround INTO #workaroundTableName
END
CLOSE cur_workaround;
DEALLOCATE cur_workaround;
SET #workaroundQuery = #workaroundQuery + ' FROM #result ORDER BY Name ASC'
EXEC(#workaroundQuery);
Thanks everyone!
A much easier solution would be to not drop the column, but don't return it in the final select.
There are all sorts of reasons why you shouldn't be returning select * from your procedure anyway.
EDIT: I see now that you have to do it this way because of an unknown number of columns.
Based on the error message, is the database case sensitive, and so there's a difference between userID and UserID?
This works for me:
CREATE TABLE #temp_t
(
myInt int,
myUser varchar(100)
)
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(1, 'Jon1')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(2, 'Jon2')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(3, 'Jon3')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(4, 'Jon4')
ALTER TABLE #temp_t
DROP Column myUser
SELECT * FROM #temp_t
DROP TABLE #temp_t
It says invalid column for you. Did you check the spelling and ensure there even exists that column in your temp table.
You might try wrapping everything preceding the DROP COLUMN in a BEGIN...COMMIT transaction.
At compile time, SQL Server is probably expanding the * into the full list of columns. Thus, at run time, SQL Server executes "SELECT UserID, Name, LastName, FirstName, ..." instead of "SELECT *". Dynamically assembling the final SELECT into a string and then EXECing it at the end of the stored procedure may be the way to go.

How can one iterate over stored procedure results from within another stored procedure....without cursors?

I'm not sure if this is something I should do in T-SQL or not, and I'm pretty sure using the word 'iterate' was wrong in this context, since you should never iterate anything in sql. It should be a set based operation, correct? Anyway, here's the scenario:
I have a stored proc that returns many uniqueidentifiers (single column results). These ids are the primary keys of records in a another table. I need to set a flag on all the corresponding records in that table.
How do I do this without the use of cursors? Should be an easy one for you sql gurus!
This may not be the most efficient, but I would create a temp table to hold the results of the stored proc and then use that in a join against the target table. For example:
CREATE TABLE #t (uniqueid int)
INSERT INTO #t EXEC p_YourStoredProc
UPDATE TargetTable
SET a.FlagColumn = 1
FROM TargetTable a JOIN #t b
ON a.uniqueid = b.uniqueid
DROP TABLE #t
You could also change your stored proc to a user-defined function that returns a table with your uniqueidentifiers. You can joing directly to the UDF and treat it like a table which avoids having to create the extra temp table explicitly. Also, you can pass parameters into the function as you're calling it, making this a very flexible solution.
CREATE FUNCTION dbo.udfGetUniqueIDs
()
RETURNS TABLE
AS
RETURN
(
SELECT uniqueid FROM dbo.SomeWhere
)
GO
UPDATE dbo.TargetTable
SET a.FlagColumn = 1
FROM dbo.TargetTable a INNER JOIN dbo.udfGetUniqueIDs() b
ON a.uniqueid = b.uniqueid
Edit:
This will work on SQL Server 2000 and up...
Insert the results of the stored proc into a temporary table and join this to the table you want to update:
INSERT INTO #WorkTable
EXEC usp_WorkResults
UPDATE DataTable
SET Flag = Whatever
FROM DataTable
INNER JOIN #WorkTable
ON DataTable.Ket = #WorkTable.Key
If you upgrade to SQL 2008 then you can pass table parameters I believe. Otherwise, you're stuck with a global temporary table or creating a permanent table that includes a column for some sort of process ID to identify which call to the stored procedure is relevant.
How much room do you have in changing the stored procedure that generates the IDs? You could add code in there to handle it or have a parameter that lets you optionally flag the rows when it is called.
Use temporary tables or a table variable (you are using SS2005).
Although, that's not nest-able - if a stored proc uses that method then you can't dumpt that output into a temp table.
An ugly solution would be to have your procedure return the "next" id each time it is called by using the other table (or some flag on the existing table) to filter out the rows that it has already returned
You can use a temp table or table variable with an additional column:
DECLARE #MyTable TABLE (
Column1 uniqueidentifer,
...,
Checked bit
)
INSERT INTO #MyTable
SELECT [...], 0 FROM MyTable WHERE [...]
DECLARE #Continue bit
SET #Continue = 1
WHILE (#Continue)
BEGIN
SELECT #var1 = Column1,
#var2 = Column2,
...
FROM #MyTable
WHERE Checked = 1
IF #var1 IS NULL
SET #Continue = 0
ELSE
BEGIN
...
UPDATE #MyTable SET Checked = 1 WHERE Column1 = #var1
END
END
Edit: Actually, in your situation a join will be better; the code above is a cursorless iteration, which is overkill for your situation.