I have a problem much like this one
SQL: selecting rows where column value changed from previous row
Although not in mysql in SQL Server. i tried ypercube's first answer jiri's answer and egor's as well. All of them just run for over 5 min with no results (one i let run over 10min). The table contains over a million records so i know this is a big part of the problem. I have a feeling ypercube's second answer might work well but don't know how to change this variable driven mysql query to SQL.
Any help would be appreciated.
SQL version 2008 r2
Basically i need to determine when a price has changed on table containing the price,productID, serialnumber and a datestamp.
I can get a quick list of what productids/serial numbers need to be checked to compare against. Sorry i did not include this earlier i was thinking i could just adapt a solution to fit it.
A common table expression should do it fairly efficiently;
WITH cte AS (
SELECT *, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY system ORDER BY timestamp) rn
FROM TableX
)
SELECT a.timestamp, a.system, a.statusa, a.statusb
FROM cte a JOIN cte b ON a.system = b.system AND a.rn = b.rn+1
WHERE a.statusa <> b.statusa
An SQLfiddle to test with.
Related
I need to fetch 4 random values from each category. What should be the correct sql syntax for maria db. I have attached one image of table structure.
Please click here to check the structure
Should i write some procedure or i can do it with basic sql syntax?
You can do that with a SQL statement if you only have a few rows:
SELECT id, question, ... FROM x1 ORDER BY rand() LIMIT 1
This works fine if you have only a few rows - as soon as you have thousands of rows the overhead for sorting the rows becomes important, you have to sort all rows for getting only one row.
A trickier but better solution would be:
SELECT id, question from x1 JOIN (SELECT CEIL(RAND() * (SELECT(MAX(id)) FROM x1)) AS id) as id using(id);
Running EXPLAIN on both SELECTS will show you the difference...
If you need random value for different categories combine the selects via union and add a where clause
http://mysql.rjweb.org/doc.php/groupwise_max#top_n_in_each_group
But then ORDER BY category, RAND(). (Your category is the blog's province.)
Notice how it uses #variables to do the counting.
If you have MariaDB 10.2, then use one of its Windowing functions.
SELECT column FROM table WHERE category_id = XXX
ORDER BY RAND()
LIMIT 4
do it for all categories
I'm having a little problem with one query that I'm writing. I've a lot of joins, and a lot of columns that I extract, in the where clause I compare date column with the minimum value of the same table. But when I got a same date for two rows, I need to get only one row. The where clause is like that:
bt.da2 = (select min(btreg.da2) from bt btreg.....
the query results a lot of customers, every customer has that bt.da2 date. I need when one customer has two rows, with the same value of the bt.da2 , I need to take only one of the two rows, not the two.
I may not explained myself clear. Please if anyone have a little clue what I'm asking, and something is not clear, please ask me.
I'm using PostgreSQL 8.3
Regards,
Julian
It's hard to tell with so little information, but I would try something like this:
select *
from (
select product_id, -- assumed to be the primary key
...
row_number() over (partition by product_id order by bt.da2) as rn
from products pr
left join bt on bt.da2 = pr.some_col
) t
where rn = 1
the row_number() function is used to create consecutive numbers for each product. The outer where clause then picks the first one. You can change the order by in the window definition to influence which one you pick.
You should be able to sort out duplicate values of da2 using:
bt.da2 = (select distinct min(btreg.da2) from bt btreg.....
I tried this out using PostgreSQL 9.1, but I am sure the distinct keyword will work as expected in 8.4 as well.
You'd immediately think I went straight to here to ask my question but I googled an awful lot to not find a decisive answer.
Facts: I have a table with 3.3 million rows, 20 columns.
The first row is the primary key thus unique.
I have to remove all the rows where column 2 till column 11 is duplicate. In fact a basic question but so much different approaches whereas everyone seeks the same solution in the end, removing the duplicates.
I was personally thinking about GROUP BY HAVING COUNT(*) > 1
Is that the way to go or what do you suggest?
Thanks a lot in advance!
L
As a generic answer:
WITH cte AS (
SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (
PARTITION BY <groupbyfield> ORDER BY <tiebreaker>) as rn
FROM Table)
DELETE FROM cte
WHERE rn > 1;
I find this more powerful and flexible than the GROUP BY ... HAVING. In fact, GROUP BY ... HAVING only gives you the duplicates, you're still left with the 'trivial' task of choosing a 'keeper' amongst the duplicates.
ROW_NUMBER OVER (...) gives more control over how to distinguish among duplicates (the tiebreaker) and allows for behavior like 'keep first 3 of the duplicates', not only 'keep just 1', which is a behavior really hard to do with GROUP BY ... HAVING.
The other part of your question is how to approach this for 3.3M rows. Well, 3.3M is not really that big, but I would still recommend doing this in batches. Delete TOP 10000 at a time, otherwise you'll push a huge transaction into the log and might overwhelm your log drives.
And final question is whether this will perform acceptably. It depends on your schema. IF the ROW_NUMBER() has to scan the entire table and spool to count, and you have to repeat this in batches for N times, then it won't perform. An appropriate index will help. But I can't say anything more, not knowing the exact schema involved (structure of clustered index/heap, all non-clustered indexes etc).
Group by the fields you want to be unique, and get an aggregate value (like min) for your pk field. Then insert those results into a new table.
If you have SQL Server 2005 or newer, then the easiest way would be to use a CTE (Common Table Expression).
You need to know what criteria you want to "partition" your data by - e.g. create partitions of data that is considered identical/duplicate - and then you need to order those partitions by something - e.g. a sequence ID, a date/time or something.
You didn't provide much details about your tables - so let me just give you a sample:
;WITH Duplicates AS
(
SELECT
OrderID,
ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY CustomerID ORDER BY OrderDate DESC) AS RowN
FROM
dbo.Orders
)
DELETE FROM dbo.Orders
WHERE RowN > 1
The CTE ( WITH ... AS :... ) gives you an "inline view" for the next SQL statement - it's not persisted or anything - it just lives for that next statement and then it's gone.
Basically, I'm "grouping" (partitioning) my Orders by CustomerID, and ordering by OrderDate. So for each CustomerID, I get a new "group" of data, which gets a row number starting with 1. The ORDER BY OrderDate DESC gives the newest order for each customer the RowN = 1 value - this is the one order I keep.
All other orders for each customer are deleted based on the CTE (the WITH..... expression).
You'll need to adapt this for your own situation, obviously - but the CTE with the PARTITION BY and ROW_NUMBER() are a very reliable and easy technique to get rid of duplicates.
If you don't want to deal with a new table delete then just use DELETE TOP(1). Use a subquery to get all the ids of rows that are duplicates and then use the delete top to delete where there is multiple rows. You might have to run more than once if there are more than one duplicate but you get the point.
DELETE TOP(1) FROM Table
WHERE ID IN (SELECT ID FROM Table GROUP BY Field HAVING COUNT(*) > 1)
You get the idea hopefully. This is just some pseudo code to help demonstrate.
is there a simple way to get the number of the current item in a simple SELECT? I need to deliver a column based on a calculation that involves the number of the current index in the select. I am simplifing my problem to an extreme, but roughly speaking, here is an example:
SELECT column1 * ITEMINDEX FROM table
I hope I am being clear. I am using SQL Server. Thank you.
In SQL Server 2005+:
SELECT m.*, ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY column) AS rn
FROM mytable m
SQL does not have concept of implicit row number, that's why you need ORDER BY clause to define the order of rows.
I need to do something like:
SELECT value_column1
FROM table1
WHERE datetime_column1 >= '2009-01-01 00:00:00'
ORDER BY datetime_column1;
Except in addition to value_column1, I also need to retrieve a moving average of the previous 20 values of value_column1.
Standard SQL is preferred, but I will use MySQL extensions if necessary.
This is just off the top of my head, and I'm on the way out the door, so it's untested. I also can't imagine that it would perform very well on any kind of large data set. I did confirm that it at least runs without an error though. :)
SELECT
value_column1,
(
SELECT
AVG(value_column1) AS moving_average
FROM
Table1 T2
WHERE
(
SELECT
COUNT(*)
FROM
Table1 T3
WHERE
date_column1 BETWEEN T2.date_column1 AND T1.date_column1
) BETWEEN 1 AND 20
)
FROM
Table1 T1
Tom H's approach will work. You can simplify it like this if you have an identity column:
SELECT T1.id, T1.value_column1, avg(T2.value_column1)
FROM table1 T1
INNER JOIN table1 T2 ON T2.Id BETWEEN T1.Id-19 AND T1.Id
I realize that this answer is about 7 years too late. I had a similar requirement and thought I'd share my solution in case it's useful to someone else.
There are some MySQL extensions for technical analysis that include a simple moving average. They're really easy to install and use: https://github.com/mysqludf/lib_mysqludf_ta#readme
Once you've installed the UDF (per instructions in the README), you can include a simple moving average in a select statement like this:
SELECT TA_SMA(value_column1, 20) AS sma_20 FROM table1 ORDER BY datetime_column1
When I had a similar problem, I ended up using temp tables for a variety of reasons, but it made this a lot easier! What I did looks very similar to what you're doing, as far as the schema goes.
Make the schema something like ID identity, start_date, end_date, value. When you select, do a subselect avg of the previous 20 based on the identity ID.
Only do this if you find yourself already using temp tables for other reasons though (I hit the same rows over and over for different metrics, so it was helpful to have the small dataset).
My solution adds a row number in table. The following example code may help:
set #MA_period=5;
select id1,tmp1.date_time,tmp1.c,avg(tmp2.c) from
(select #b:=#b+1 as id1,date_time,c from websource.EURUSD,(select #b:=0) bb order by date_time asc) tmp1,
(select #a:=#a+1 as id2,date_time,c from websource.EURUSD,(select #a:=0) aa order by date_time asc) tmp2
where id1>#MA_period and id1>=id2 and id2>(id1-#MA_period)
group by id1
order by id1 asc,id2 asc
In my experience, Mysql as of 5.5.x tends not to use indexes on dependent selects, whether a subquery or join. This can have a very significant impact on performance where the dependent select criteria change on every row.
Moving average is an example of a query which falls into this category. Execution time may increase with the square of the rows. To avoid this, chose a database engine which can perform indexed look-ups on dependent selects. I find postgres works effectively for this problem.
In mysql 8 window function frame can be used to obtain the averages.
SELECT value_column1, AVG(value_column1) OVER (ORDER BY datetime_column1 ROWS 19 PRECEDING) as ma
FROM table1
WHERE datetime_column1 >= '2009-01-01 00:00:00'
ORDER BY datetime_column1;
This calculates the average of the current row and 19 preceding rows.