Hai,
I have two database and I want to select one value from one of the databases....
for that I want to pass one value and if that value is stored in the database I want to pick the id representing the value in the database.
that means the operation is that.....
first I select a row of data from one database by using a user control...
in that row there is a value (example "apple") and I want pass this value("apple") to the second database... in the second database the value("apple") having a id (example "australian") I want that the query search for that id("australian") and show that in the text box.
Please help me....
thanks to all advance....
example
first database
id name details
1 apple sweet
2 orange sweet
second database
id name details
Australian apple sold
Indian banana sold
Imagine that there are the two databases....
using a user control I select first row from first database and I want to pass that value apple to second database and find out the id australian from the second database and show that in a text box....
thank you.........
You can do a join between the two databases as long as you use the fully qualified prefix for each one.
I think you should go for the join , your query should look something like this
SELECT SecondDataBase.TableName.Id
FROM FirstDatabase.TableName INNER JOIN
SecondDataBase.TableName ON FirstDatabase.TableName.["Column contains Apple"] = SecondDataBase.TableName.["Column contains Apple"]
Fully qualified table name, which includes server name, db name, schema and table (e.g. MySqlServerInstance1.mydb1.dbo.table1) name will definitely work as long as one database server has a registered reference within a calling DB server. See this for things you have to do if you are using MS SQL Server: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188231.aspx
In MSSQL you normally reference a table using SchemaName.TableName
dbo.Fruit
The database is automatically determined by your connection string. FirstDatabase
So when you use dbo.fruit, the server automatically appends the database name to the table like
FirstDatabase.dbo.Fruit
If the user account has permission, you can select from a completely different database by specifying the database
SecondDatabase.dbo.FruitSales
To take it even further you can select from an entirely different SQL server if you have set up a linked server by specifying the linked server name like
SecondServer.ThirdDatabase.dbo.FruitShipping
So you can join between a table in your database and a table in your second database like
SELECT *
FROM FirstDatabase.dbo.Fruit AS F INNER JOIN
SecondDatabase.dbo.FruitSales AS FS ON F.Something = FS.Something
But you can even join between a table in your database and a table on a different server like
SELECT *
FROM FirstDatabase.dbo.Fruit AS F INNER JOIN
SecondServer.ThirdDatabase.dbo.FruitShipping AS FS ON F.Something = FS.Something
Related
So the problem is that I have three huge table with same structure, and I need to show the results of one of them depending on result from another query.
So my order table looks like that:
code order
A 0
B 2
C 1
And I need to retrieve data from t_results
My approach (which is working) looks like this:
select *
from t_results_a
where 'A' in (
select code
from t_order
where order = 0
)
UNION ALL
select *
from t_results_b
where 'B' in (
select code
from t_order
where order = 0
)
UNION ALL
select *
from t_results_c
where 'C' in (
select code
from t_order
where order = 0
)
Is there anyway to not scan all three tables, as I am working with Athena so I can't program?
I presume that changing your database schema is not an option.
If it were, you could use one database table and add a CODE column whose value would be either A, B or C.
Basically the result of the SQL query on your ORDER table determines which other database table you need to query. For example, if CODE in table ORDER is A, then you have to query table T_RESULTS_A.
You wrote in your question
I am working with Athena so I can't program
I see that there is both an ODBC driver and a JDBC driver for Athena, so you can program with either .NET or Java. So you could write code that queries the ORDER table and use the result of that query to build another query string to query just the relevant table.
Another thought I had was dynamic SQL. Oracle database supports it. I can create a string containing variables where one variable is the database table name and have Oracle interpret the string as SQL and execute it. I briefly searched the Internet to see whether Athena supports this (as I have no experience with Athena) but found nothing - which doesn't mean to say that it does not exist.
I need to create a column name based on the value of other columns. I need to return a value from a column, but the specific name depends on the value insert on other table.
From intance:
Table A
Column1 | Column2
1 2
Base on that values I need to go to the table B to the column "VE12".
I need this dynamiclly, so the execute(#query) is my last option and I would like to avoid CASE WHEN statments because I have more than 50 options.
My query will be something like:
select case when fn.tab=8 and fo.pais=3 then cp.ve83 end
FROM fn
INNER JOIN fo ON fo.stamp = fn.stamp
INNER JOIN cp
If the value in the column tab is 8 and the value in column pais is 3 I should return the value in column ve83.
Thanks for all the help!
The only sensible option is to go back to the business meaning of the data and redesign the database according to that, instead of according to "technique-oriented abstractions" such as these that SQL was never intended to support.
The main reason for this is that SQL was founded on FIRST order logic, and this precludes supporting stuff like varying domains. Which you are doing (or at least seeking to do) because ve12 could be a DATETIME and ve83 could be a VARCHAR and ve56 coulb be a BLOB etc. etc. So there is just no way for you [or anyone else] to determine the data type of the results in your query, and it is even more impossible to attach meaning to what comes out of your desired query precisely because of this varying-domain and varying-source characteristic.
first off, noob alert! :))
I need to construct a query that runs on many tables. The tables vary on name just on the last digits as per client code. The thing is, the values that change aren't sequential so looping as in i=1,2,3,... does not work. A possible solution would be to have those values on a given field on an other table.
Here is the code for the first two clients 015 and 061. The leading zero(s) must are essential.
SELECT LnMov2017015.CConta, RsMov2017015.DR, RsMov2017015.NInt, "015" AS CodCli
FROM LnMov2017015 INNER JOIN RsMov2017015 ON LnMov2017015.NReg = RsMov2017015.NReg
WHERE (((LnMov2017015.CConta)="6" And (LnMov2017015.CConta)="7") AND ((RsMov2017015.DR)=9999))
UNION SELECT LnMov2017061.CConta, RsMov2017061.DR, RsMov2017061.NInt, "061" AS CodCli
FROM LnMov2017061 INNER JOIN RsMov2017061 ON LnMov2017061.NReg = RsMov2017061.NReg
WHERE (((LnMov2017061.CConta)="6" And (LnMov2017061.CConta)="7") AND ((RsMov2017061.DR)=9999))
...
So for the first SELECT the table Name is LnMov2017015, the ending 015 being the value, the client code, that changes from table to table e.g. in the second SELECT the table name is LnMov2017061 (061) being what distinguishes the table.
For each client code there are two tables e.g. LnMov2017015 and RsMov2017015 (LnMov2017061 and RsMov2017061 for the second set client shown).
Is there a way that I can build the SQL, based upon the example SQL above?
Does anyone have an idea for a solution? :)
Apparently it is possible to build a query object to read data in another db without establishing table link. Just tested and to my surprise it works. Example:
SELECT * FROM [SoilsAgg] IN "C:\Users\Owner\June\DOT\Lab\Editing\ConstructionData.accdb";
I was already using this structure in VBA to execute DELETE and UPDATE action statements.
Solution found :)
Thank you all for your input.
Instead of linking 100 tables (password protected), I'll access them with SLQ
FROM Table2 IN '' ';database=C:\db\db2.mdb;PWD=mypwd'
And merge them all with a query, before any other thing!
I want to create an interface between 2 databases on SQL Server 2008+ to copy several similar named tables into one.
I have n tables that all have the same naming convention, for example:
SalesInvoicePlanning2014ver1
SalesInvoicePlanning2015ver1
SalesInvoicePlanning2015ver2
etc.
The numbers can vary and do not have a set start (or end), but are always of the "int"-Datatype.
I also have a table "tabledir" that contains all table names as list. (one field) There are a total of 30-40 entries in that list with (for me) undesired entries. In the above example I would need 3 of the 30 tables.
The plan is to use a loop container to
select Top 1([name]) from [tabledir] where name like 'SalesinvoicePlanning%'
and then use the result as variable in the following SSIS Data transfer task:
Select * from [variable]
However, I'm stuck with the SQL statement to give me the desired tablename on each iteration.
Performance is not really an issue. Any advice? Am I wrong trying to use a loop-container?
You can follow below steps -
Step 1 - You can first create SQL task to get all table names into one variable lets say, TableNames of type Object(recordset) using you query.
e.g. select ([name]) as TableName from [tabledir] where name like 'SalesinvoicePlanning%'
Step 2 - Add foreach loop container to iterate over this variable TableNames to take single table name into new variable current_table and add data flow into the container to import data to destination table. Your source query will be expression like -
Select column_names from current_table
I am currently writing a VBA-based Excel add-in that's heavily based on a Jet database backend (I use the Office 2003 suite -- the problem would be the same with a more recent version of Office anyway).
During the initialization of my app, I create stored procedures that are defined in a text file. Those procedures are called by my app when needed.
Let me take a simple example to describe my issue: suppose that my app allows end-users to select the identifiers of orders for which they'd like details. Here's the table definition:
Table tblOrders: OrderID LONG, OrderDate DATE, (other fields)
The end-user may select one or more OrderIDs, displayed in a form - s/he just has to tick the checkbox of the relevant OrderIDs for which s/he'd like details (OrderDate, etc).
Because I don't know in advance how many OrderID s/he will select, I could dynamically create the SQL query in the VBA code by cascading WHERE clauses based on the choices made on the form:
SELECT * FROM tblOrders WHERE OrderID = 1 OR OrderID = 2 OR OrderID = 3
or, much simpler, by using the IN keyword:
SELECT * FROM tblOrders WHERE OrderID IN (1,2,3)
Now if I turn this simple query into a stored procedure so that I can dynamically pass list of OrderIDs I want to be displayed, how should I do? I already tried things like:
CREATE PROCEDURE spTest (#OrderList varchar) AS
SELECT * FROM tblOrders WHERE OrderID IN (#OrderList)
But this does not work (I was expecting that), because #OrderList is interpreted as a string (e.g. "1,2,3") and not as a list of long values. (I adapted from code found here: Passing a list/array to SQL Server stored procedure)
I'd like to avoid dealing with this issue via pure VBA code (i.e. dynamically assigning list of values to a query that is hardcoded in my application) as much as possible. I'd understand if ever this is not possible.
Any clue?
You can create the query-statement string dynamically. In SQL Server you can have a function whose return value is a TABLE, and invoke that function inline as if it were a table. Or in JET you could also create a kludge -- a temporary table (or persistent table that serves the function of a temporary table) that contains the values in your in-list, one per row, and join on that table. The query would thus be a two-step process: 1) populate temp table with INLIST values, then 2) execute the query joining on the temp table.
MYTEMPTABLE
autoincrementing id
QueryID [some value to identify the current query, perhaps a GUID]
myvalue one of the values in your in-list, string
select * from foo
inner join MYTEMPTABLE on foo.column = MYTEMPTABLE.myvalue and MYTEMPTABLE.QueryId = ?
[cannot recall if JET allows ANDs in INNER JOIN as SQL Server does --
if not, adjust syntax accordingly]
instead of
select * from foo where foo.column IN (... )
In this way you could have the same table handle multiple queries concurrently, because each query would have a unique identifier. You could delete the in-list rows after you're finished with them:
DELETE FROM MYTEMPTABLE where QueryID = ?
P.S. There would be several ways of handling data type issues for the join. You could cast the string value in MYTEMPTABLE as required, or you could have multiple columns in MYTEMPTABLE of varying datatypes, inserting into and joining on the correct column:
MYTEMPTABLE
id
queryid
mytextvalue
myintvalue
mymoneyvalue
etc