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I am working in SQL Server 2008. I have 2 tables Table1 & Table2.
Table1 has columns
SchoolCode, District, Type, SchoolName
and Table2 has columns
SchoolCode1, District1, Type1, SchoolName1
SchoolCode columns in both tables have the same codes like "1234"; code is the same in both schoolcode columns.
Now I want to copy the District, Type and SchoolName column values from Table1 to Table2 if SchoolCode in both tables is same.
I think the query will use join but I don't know how it works. Any help on how I can do this task?
Maybe use an update statement in join if by copying over you mean updating rows
update t2
set
District1= District,
Type1= Type,
SchoolName1= SchoolName
from Table1 t1
join
Table2 t2
on t1.SchoolCode=t2.SchoolCode1
I could give you a little bit of idea. here is it:
Insert into table2 (District1, Type1, SchoolName1)
SELECT District, Type, SchoolName
FROM table1
where table1.Schoolcode=table2.Schoolcode1
You have to use Inner join to update data from table 1 to table 2, Inner join will join values that are equal. . To learn more about joins, I highly recommend you to read the below article
SQLServer Joins Explained - W3Schools
Please refer the below code, for the convenience I have used the temporary tables..
DECLARE #Table1 TABLE
(
SchoolCode INT,
District VARCHAR(MAX),
Type VARCHAR(MAX),
SchoolName VARCHAR(MAX)
)
DECLARE #Table2 TABLE
(
SchoolCode1 INT,
District1 VARCHAR(MAX),
Type1 VARCHAR(MAX),
SchoolName1 VARCHAR(MAX)
)
INSERT INTO #Table1
( SchoolCode ,District , Type , SchoolName
)
VALUES ( 1 ,'DIS1' ,'X' ,'A'),
( 2 ,'DIS2' ,'Y' ,'B'),
( 3 ,'DIS3' ,'Z' ,'C'),
( 4 ,'DIS4' ,'D' ,'D'),
( 5 ,'DIS5' ,'K' ,'E')
INSERT INTO #Table2
( SchoolCode1 ,District1 , Type1 , SchoolName1
)
VALUES ( 1 ,'DIS1' ,'X' ,'A'),
( 2 ,NULL ,'Z' ,NULL),
( 3 ,'DIS3' ,'Z' ,'C'),
( 4 ,NULL ,'Z' ,'S'),
( 5 ,'DIS5' ,'K' ,'E')
--BEFORE
SELECT * FROM #Table1
SELECT * FROM #Table2
--Logic UPDATE Table 2
UPDATE t2 SET t2.District1 = t1.District,
t2.Type1 = t1.Type,
t2.SchoolName1 = t1.SchoolName
FROM #Table1 t1
INNER JOIN #Table2 t2 ON t1.SchoolCode = t2.SchoolCode1
-- End Logic UPDATE Table 2
--AFTER
SELECT * FROM #Table1
SELECT * FROM #Table2
You can join tables in an UPDATE statement.
Note, I have aliased the tables, table1 and table2 as t1 and t2 respectively.
This is what I did:
create table Table1
(SchoolCode varchar(50),
District varchar(50),[Type] varchar(50),SchoolName varchar(50))
go
create table Table2
(SchoolCode1 varchar(50), District1 varchar(50),[Type1] varchar(50),SchoolName1 varchar(50))
go
insert into table1 values ('1234','District1','High','Cool School')
insert into table1 values ('2222','District2','Lower','Leafy School')
insert into table2 (SchoolCode1) values ('1234')
go
update t2
set District1 = District,
Type1 = [Type],
SchoolName1 = SchoolName
from table1 t1
join table2 t2
on t2.SchoolCode1 = t1.SchoolCode
go
select * from table2
go
This might be a stupid question, but I am not a DBA and kind of stuck with this issue. I have an application that trickles down all effects (asdf) under an applied ID (IDParent).
The data tables are setup like this:
Data Tables
3rd Data Table
I want to write a query that when using IDChild it will reference that entry's IDParent to get the parent ID while referencing it as an IDChild. For example for the data entry starting at 116 I want to use the parent ID (124) and get 321 in T1. I want to use this to get the RandoName associated with RandoID for all of the entries that has a parent ID of 321.
Right now I am using a script something like:
Select t.[NAME]
From T2 tv
Inner join T3 t on t.RandoID = tv.RandoId
Where
tv.IDChild = T1.IDChild OR tv.IDChild = T1.IDParent
but I'm not sure how to get the whole applied hierarchy.
This would yield something like this:
Resulting Query
PS. I can not change the tables/db schema. But maybe I can add one to do all the referencing? Please tell me what you think.
EDIT I'm sorry I forgot about this other stupid table that RandoID uses which contains the name of the RandoID. I am trying to get the name of RandoID
I think a loop could help you.
Try this:
CREATE TABLE #t1 (IDChild Int, IDParent Int);
CREATE TABLE #t2 (RandoID NVARCHAR(10) , IDChild Int);
CREATE TABLE #RandoName (RandoID NVARCHAR(10), RandoName VARCHAR(50));
INSERT INTO #t1 VALUES (321, NULL), (123,321),(124,123),(116,124)
INSERT INTO #t2 VALUES ('asdf', 123)
INSERT INTO #RandoName VALUES ('asdf', 'something')
SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY (SELECT 100)) [RowNum], a.IDChild a, a.IDParent b, b.IDChild c INTO #t3 FROM #t1 a
LEFT OUTER JOIN #t1 b ON b.IDParent = a.IDChild
DECLARE #rownum INT;
DECLARE cbcursor CURSOR for Select RowNum FROM #t3;
OPEN cbcursor;
Fetch Next from cbcursor into #rownum
WHILE ##FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
UPDATE #t3
SET c = (SELECT b from #t3 where RowNum = #rownum-1)
WHERE RowNum = #rownum
Fetch Next from cbcursor into #rownum;
END;
Close cbcursor;
Deallocate cbcursor;
SELECT a,b,t2.RandoID, r.RandoName FROM #t3
LEFT OUTER JOIN #t2 t2 on t2.IDChild = #t3.c OR t2.IDChild = #t3.b OR t2.IDChild = #t3.a
LEFT OUTER JOIN #RandoName r on t2.RandoID = r.RandoID
This is what I get:
If you have any changes in your tables, like more records for T2, this script should be modified.
Using recursion:
declare #t table (IDc int , Idp int)
insert into #t
values
(321,null)
,(123,321)
,(124,123)
,(116,124)
declare #t2 table (RandoID varchar(10), IDChild int)
insert into #t2
values('asdf',123)
;with cte as
(
select anchor = IDChild
,ParentOrSelf = IDc
,RandoID
,RandomName
from #t
cross join (select RandoID,RandoName from #t2 t2 join #t3 t3 on t2.RandoID=t3.RandoID) crossed
where IDc=#anchor
union all
select t2.IDChild
,IDc
, t2.RandoID,RandomName
from #t t
cross join (select RandoID,RandoName from #t2 t2 join #t3 t3 on t2.RandoID=t3.RandoID) t2
join cte on cte.ParentOrSelf = t.Idp
)
select IDc
, cte.RandoID,cte.RandomName
from #t t
left join cte on t.IDc = cte.ParentOrSelf
Results:
IDc RandoID
321 NULL
123 asdf
124 asdf
116 asdf
How do I update/replace the value of the first table from the list of my second table in SQL. Sorry im not so good in using replace() of SQL especially replacing from values base from different table
First table.
ID | Value
======================
1 | Fruits[Apple]
2 | Fruits[Apple,Mango]
3 | Apple[Red,Green]
Second table
Search | Replace
=========================
Apple | Orange
Green | Yellow
You will need some kind of recursive replace.
something like a loop
declare #t1 table (ID int, Value varchar(max))
declare #t2 table (Search varchar(max), ReplaceWith varchar(max))
insert #t1 values (1, 'Fruits[Apple]'),(2, 'Fruits[Apple,Mango]'), (3, 'Apple[Red,Green]')
insert #t2 values ('Apple', 'Orange'),('Green', 'Yellow')
--loop nth times for rows that have more than one match
while exists(select top 1 * from #t1 inner join #t2 on charindex(Search, Value ) > 0)
begin
update #t1
set Value = replace(Value, Search, ReplaceWith)
from #t2
inner join #t1 on charindex(Search, Value ) > 0
end
select * from #t1
results
ID Value
----- -----------------------
1 Fruits[Orange]
2 Fruits[Orange,Mango]
3 Orange[Red,Yellow]
Alternatively, you could use recursive CTE
;with CTE(ID, Value, rec_count)
as (
select distinct ID, Value, 1 as rec_count from #t1 inner join #t2 on charindex(Search, Value ) > 0
union all
select ID, Value = replace(Value, Search, ReplaceWith), rec_count +1
from CTE
inner join #t2 on charindex(Search, Value ) > 0
)
update #t1
set Value= replaced.Value
from #t1 t
inner join
( select distinct ID, Value
from CTE c
where rec_count > 1
and rec_count = (select max(rec_count) from CTE where ID = c.ID) ) replaced on replaced.ID = t.ID
Simply use following UPDATE by cross-joined select statement and enjoy it! ;)
UPDATE tFirst
SET Value = REPLACE(tFirst.Value, tSecond.Search, tSecond.Replace)
FROM
[First] tFirst
CROSS JOIN [Second] tSecond
I have an SQL query that returns a column like this:
foo
-----------
1200
1200
1201
1200
1200
1202
1202
1202
It has already been ordered in a specific way, and I would like to perform another query on this result set to ID the repeated data like this:
foo ID
---- ----
1200 1
1200 1
1201 2
1200 3
1200 3
1202 4
1202 4
1202 4
It's important that the second group of 1200 is identified as separate from the first. Every variation of OVER/PARTITION seems to want to lump both groups together. Is there a way to window the partition to only these repeated groups?
Edit:
This is for Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Not sure this will be the fastest results...
select main.num, main.id from
(select x.num,row_number()
over (order by (select 0)) as id
from (select distinct num from num) x) main
join
(select num, row_number() over(order by (select 0)) as ordering
from num) x2 on
x2.num=main.num
order by x2.ordering
Assuming the table "num" has a column "num" that contains your data, in the order-- of course num could be made into a view or a "with" for your original query.
Please see the following sqlfiddle
Here is one way to do this without a CURSOR
-- Create a temporay table
DECLARE #table TABLE
(
SeqID INT IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
foo INT,
id int null
)
DECLARE #i INT
DECLARE #j INT
DECLARE #k INT
declare #tFoo INT
declare #oldFoo INT
SET #k = 0
set #oldFoo = 0
-- Insert data into the temporary table
INSERT INTO #table(foo)
SELECT 1200
INSERT INTO #table(foo)
SELECT 1200
INSERT INTO #table(foo)
SELECT 1201
INSERT INTO #table(foo)
SELECT 1200
INSERT INTO #table(foo)
SELECT 1200
INSERT INTO #table(foo)
SELECT 1202
INSERT INTO #table(foo)
SELECT 1202
INSERT INTO #table(foo)
SELECT 1202
-- Get the max and min SeqIDs to loop through
SELECT #i = MIN(SeqID) FROM #table
SELECT #j = MAX(SeqID) FROM #table
-- Loop through the temp table using the SeqID indentity column
WHILE (#i <= #j)
BEGIN
SELECT #tFoo = foo FROM #table WHERE SeqID = #i
if #oldFoo <> #tFoo
set #k = #k + 1
update #table set id = #k where SeqID = #i
SET #oldFoo = #tFoo
-- Increment the counter
SET #i = #i + 1
END
SELECT * from #table
You can do it without using cursors but it does not look nice (at least what I came up with). So 1) I assume you have PK column which orders your main values.
Then 2) I assume you have an ID column which you want to set.
create table tbl(foo int, pk int, id int);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1100, 5);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1200, 10);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1200, 20);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1201, 30);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1200, 40);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1200, 50);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1202, 60);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1202, 70);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1202, 80);
insert into tbl(foo, pk) values (1202, 90);
SQL Fiddle here: http://sqlfiddle.com/#!6/fdaaa/2
update tbl
set
ID = 1
update t
set
t.ID = m.RN2
from
tbl t
join
(
select
y1.RN as RN1, y1.PK as PK1,
y2.RN as RN2, y2.PK as PK2
FROM
(
SELECT
ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY x.pk1 ASC) AS rn,
x.pk1 AS pk
FROM
(
SELECT t1.pk AS pk1, t2.pk AS pk2
FROM
tbl t1
LEFT JOIN tbl t2 ON
(
(t1.pk < t2.pk AND t1.foo = t2.foo)
AND
(
NOT EXISTS
(
SELECT tMid.pk FROM
tbl tMid WHERE
tMid.pk < t2.pk
AND
tMid.pk > t1.pk
)
)
)
) x WHERE x.pk2 IS NULL
) y1
left join
(
SELECT
ROW_NUMBER() OVER(ORDER BY x.pk1 ASC) AS rn,
x.pk1 AS pk
FROM
(
SELECT t1.pk AS pk1, t2.pk AS pk2
FROM
tbl t1
LEFT JOIN tbl t2 ON
(
(t1.pk < t2.pk AND t1.foo = t2.foo)
AND
(
NOT EXISTS
(
SELECT tMid.pk FROM
tbl tMid WHERE
tMid.pk < t2.pk
AND
tMid.pk > t1.pk
)
)
)
) x WHERE x.pk2 IS NULL
) y2 on y1.RN = y2.RN - 1
) m on
(
(t.pk > m.pk1 and ((m.pk2 is not null ) and (t.pk <= m.pk2)))
-- or
-- (t.pk<=m.pk1)
)
This is my solution using a cursor and a temporary table to hold the results.
DECLARE #foo INT
DECLARE #previousfoo INT = -1
DECLARE #id INT = 0
DECLARE #getid CURSOR
DECLARE #resultstable TABLE
(
primaryId INT IDENTITY(1, 1) NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY,
foo INT,
id int null
)
SET #getid = CURSOR FOR
SELECT originaltable.foo
FROM originaltable
OPEN #getid
FETCH NEXT
FROM #getid INTO #foo
WHILE ##FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
IF (#foo <> #previousfoo)
BEGIN
SET #id = #id + 1
END
INSERT INTO #resultstable VALUES (#foo, #id)
SET #previousfoo = #foo
FETCH NEXT
FROM #getid INTO #foo
END
CLOSE #getid
DEALLOCATE #getid
I'm wondering if anyone's come across a neat solution to this problem. I'm trying to select data from a couple of tables, having the records match up row by row. I'm basically after a full outer join, but there's one crucial difference. If I have four rows with a particular value in the column I'm joining on in one table, and three rows with this value in another, I only want the first three results to be joined, and the fourth to act as if there had been no match.
The reason for this is to create a reconciliation report which ensures transactions are not counted multiple times when comparing results. I can get around this issue by using a bit of grouping and some aggregate functions, but this hides some of the detail which I'd like to keep.
Below is an example to show the sort of thing I'm after, with the invalid/pseudo code in the comments illustrating how I'm thinking of this as working:
declare #t1 table (id bigint identity(1,1) primary key clustered, foreignKeyId bigint, otherData nvarchar(10))
declare #t2 table (id bigint identity(1,1) primary key clustered, foreignKeyId bigint, moreData nvarchar(10))
insert #t1 select 1, '1.1.1'
union all select 1, '1.1.2'
union all select 1, '1.1.3'
union all select 3, '1.3.1'
union all select 3, '1.3.2'
union all select 3, '1.3.3'
union all select 4, '1.4.3'
insert #t2 select 1, '2.1.1'
union all select 1, '2.1.2'
union all select 1, '2.1.3'
union all select 2, '2.2.1'
union all select 3, '2.3.1'
union all select 3, '2.3.2'
union all select 5, '2.5.1'
union all select 5, '2.5.2'
--demo of the functionality i'm hoping to acheive
--
/*
select t1.id id1
, t2.id id2
, t1.foreignKeyId fk1
, t2.foreignKeyId fk2
, t1.otherData otherData
, t2.moreData moreData
from #t1 t1
full funky join #t2 t2
on t1.foreignKeyId = t2.foreignKeyId
order by t1.id, t2.id --we'd need an order by to ensure the match could be applied in a predictable manner
*/
--
declare #funkyjoin table (id1 bigint, id2 bigint, fk1 bigint, fk2 bigint, otherData nvarchar(10), moreData nvarchar(10))
declare #id1 bigint, #id2 bigint
insert #funkyjoin (id1, fk1, otherData)
select id, foreignKeyId, otherData from #t1
while exists(select 1 from #t2)
begin
select top 1 #id2 = id from #t2 order by id
set #id1 = null
select top 1 #id1 = id1
from #funkyjoin
where fk2 is null
and fk1 in (select foreignKeyId from #t2 where id = #id2)
if #id1 is null
begin
insert #funkyjoin (id2, fk2, moreData)
select id, foreignKeyId, moreData
from #t2
where id = #id2
end
else
begin
update #funkyjoin
set id2 = #id2
, fk2 = fk1 --since we're joining on this we can just match it
, moreData = (select moreData from #t2 where id = #id2)
where id1 = #id1
end
delete from #t2 where id = #id2 --since this is only an example let's not worry about keeping our source data
end
select *
from #funkyjoin
order by coalesce(id1, id2)
I've written a similar solution for when this scenario occurs on spreadsheets previously: http://officemacros.codeplex.com/#WorksheetMergeMacro
If I understand correctly, this may be what you're after:
select *
from (
select *,
row_number() over (partition by foreignKeyId order by id) as n
from #t1
) t1
full outer join (
select *,
row_number() over (partition by foreignKeyId order by id) as n
from #t2
) t2 on t1.foreignKeyId = t2.foreignKeyId and t1.n = t2.n
The best way to use up the rows is to add a pseudo-row number (using ROW_NUMBER) and include that in the join.