I tried doing this but it failed.
SELECT table2.ID, table1.* FROM table2
LEFT JOIN table1 ON table1.ID = table2.table1ID
How do you select all columns from a table?
EDIT: There is no error in the above query. I don't know what caused the error but the code is now working.
You had field names conflict as both tables have ID field. You must to
SELECT table2.ID as t2_id, table1.* FROM table2
LEFT JOIN table1 ON table1.ID = table2.table1ID
What you have is syntactically correct, exactly what did you mean by it failed? Did you get an error message or just not the results you wanted? (BTW it is a bad practice to select *, only return the columns you need. In this case you do not need all the columns as the id field in table1 will have the exact same data as the file din table 2 it is joined to)
SELECT t2.ID, t1.* FROM table2 t2
LEFT JOIN table1 t1 ON t1.ID = t2.table1ID
this works on sql 2000+
If I am working inside a stored procedure where I have a defined #Table data type, there is no issue with using select table.* especially if I am using it for an output SELECT at the end. So the comment about production servers and network traffic in this case is meaningless as the entire stored procedure executes in memory. A select.* in this case is merely returning all the columns which have been defined ahead of time.
Related
I have a query that I'm trying to rework that has over 1,000 columns when I select * FROM several tables. I want to know if there is a way in SQL to tag the column alias with the table alias so i can know from which table the columns are from. It looks like the following:
SELECT *
FROM table1 t1
join table2 t2
join table3 t3
join table4 t4
Current column output:
id, id, id, id, name, name, name, name, order, order, order, order
Desired Column output:
t1.id, t1.name, t1.order, t2.id, t2.name, t2.order,t3.id, t3.name, t3.order, t4.id, t4.name, t4.order
this is a very simple example but you can imagine trying to fish out the column you need of a sea of 1,000 columns trying to figure out what table it came from! Any ideas??
I'm not aware of a way to prefix each column with the column alias. However I do know how you could easily break the columns into groups that would allow you to figure out which table each column comes from.
SELECT 'T1' as [Table1]
, t1.*
, 'T2' as [Table2]
, t2.*
, 'T3' as [Table3]
, t3.*
, t4.* as [Table4]
, t4.*
, 'T5' as [Table5]
, t5.*
FROM table1 t1
join table2 t2
join table3 t3
join table4 t4
This would break out the columns into groups by table and it would break a little bookmark before and after each group to help you understand where they're coming.
I know not exactly what you asked for but I believe it would help you a lot in figuring out what's from what tables.
Your other option is as others have said and specifiying the prefix on every column which it sounds like you don't want to do. However it can be a lot quicker to do this if you drag the columns from the Object Explorer - and use ALT-SHIFT to add the prefix to each column.
Here's an article about copying columns from object explorer - https://www.qumio.com/Blog/Lists/Posts/Post.aspx?ID=56
Her's an article about adjusting code using ALT+SHIFT - https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/sql_pfe_blog/2017/04/11/quick-tip-shiftalt-for-multiple-line-edits/
The first method would take less than a method, the 2nd method I could see taking less than 10 minutes even for 1,000 columns.
You have to assign non-default column aliases manually:
select t1.id as t1_id, t1.name as t1_name, t1.order as t1_order,
t2.id as t2_id, t2.name as t2_name, t2.order as t2_order,
. . .
You might find that a spreadsheet or query can help, if you have a lot of columns.
Some products may have exceptions, but generally no, you can't do that. You either have to use wildcards (SELECT *) or specify the columns you wish returned by full and complete name.
If you specify columns, you can "alias" them, set the column name to something other than the source name. For example (psuedo-code, leaving out the "ON" clause):
SELECT
T1.Id as T1_Id
,T2.Id as T2_Id
from table1 T1
join table2 T2
Note that you can combine table aliases with wildcards. For example:
SELECT
T2.*
from table1 T1
join table2 T2
join table3 T3
join table4 T5
will return all the columns from table2, and only from table2. This might help in revising your query by getting a list of the available columns in each table.
First, SQL is not my strength. So I need help with the following problem. I'll simplify the table contents to describe the problem.
Let's start with three tables : table1 with columns id_1 and value, table2 with columns id_2 and value, and table3 with columns id_3 and value. As you'll notice, a field value appears in all three tables, while ids have different column names. Modifying column names is not an option because they are used by Java legacy code.
I need to set table3.value using table1.value or table2.value according to the fields table1.id_1, table2.id_2 and table3.id_3.
My last attempt, which describes what I try to do, is the following:
UPDATE table3
SET value=(IF ((SELECT COUNT(\*) FROM table1 t1 WHERE t1.id_1=id_3) > 0)
SELECT value FROM table1 t1 WHERE t1.id_1=id_3
ELSE IF ((SELECT COUNT(\*) FROM table2 t2 WHERE t2.id_2=id_3)) > 0)
SELECT value FROM table2 t2 WHERE t2.id_2=id_3)
Here are some informations about the tables and the update.
This update will be included in an XML file used by Liquibase.
It must work with Oracle or SQL Server.
An id from table3.id_3 can be found at most once in table1.id_1 or in table2.id_2, but not in both tables simultaneously.
If table3.id_3 is not found in table1.id_1 nor in table2.id_2, table3.value remains null.
As you can imagine, my last attempt failed. In that case, the IF command was not recognized during the Liquibase update. If anyone has any ideas how to deal with this, I'd appreciate. Thanks in advance.
I don't know Oracle very well, but a SQL Server approach would be the following using COALESCE() and OUTER JOINs.
Update T3
Set Value = Coalesce(T1.Value, T2.Value)
From Table3 T3
Left Join Table2 T2 On T3.Id_3 = T2.Id_2
Left Join Table1 T1 On T3.Id_3 = T1.Id_1
The COALESCE() will return the first non-NULL value from the LEFT JOIN to tables 1 and 2, and if a record was not found in either, it would be set to NULL.
It is Siyual's UPDATE written with MERGE operator.
MERGE into table_1
USING (
SELECT COALESCE(t2.value, t3.value) as value, t1.id_1 as id
FROM table_1 t1, table_2 t2, table_3 t3
WHERE t2.id_2 = t3.id_3 and t1.id_1 = t2.id_2
) t on (table_1.id_1 = t.id)
WHEN MATCHED THEN
UPDATE SET table_1.value = t.value
This should work in Oracle.
In Oracle
UPDATE table3 t
SET value=COALESCE((SELECT value FROM table1 t1 WHERE t1.id_1=t.id_3),
(SELECT value FROM table2 t2 WHERE t2.id_2=t.id_3))
Given your assumption #3, you can use union all to put together tables 1 and 2 without running the risk of duplicating information (at least for the id's of interest). So a simple merge solution like the one below should work (in all DB products that implement the merge operation).
merge into table3
using (
select id_2 as id, value from table2
union all
select id_3, value from table 3
) t
on table3.id_3 = t.id
when matched
then update set table3.value = t.value;
You may want to test the various solutions and see which is most effective for your specific tables.
(Note: merge should be more efficient than the update solution using coalesce, at least when relatively few of the id's in table3 have a match in the other tables. This is because the update solution will re-insert NULL where NULL was already stored when there is no match. The merge solution avoids this unnecessary activity.)
I'm breaking my head here where I'm going wrong.
The following query:
SELECT SUM(table1.col1) FROM table1
returns value x.
And the following query:
SELECT SUM(table1.col1) FROM table2 RIGHT OUTER JOIN table1 ON table2.ID = table1.ID
returns value y. (I need the Join for the other data of table2). Why is the 2nd example returning a different value than in the first?
Make life easier on yourself, your colleagues that will support your code, and your clients by temporarily ignoring the existence of RIGHT OUTER JOIN. Use Table1 as the "from table" instead of table2.
Then, If aggregating, you will often find it necessary to do this BEFORE joining, so that the numbers are accurate. e.g.
SELECT T1.SUMCOL1
FROM (
SELECT id, SUM(col1) as SUMCOL1 FROM Table1 GROUP BY id
) T1
LEFT OUTER JOIN table2 T2 on T1.id = T2.ID
Obvious answer is because table2 is many to table1's one. That is, there are multiple rows in table2 for one id in table1. You may also be eliminating rows from table1 if the id isn't present in table2.
Compare:
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM table1
To:
SELECT COUNT(*) FROM table2 RIGHT OUTER JOIN table1 ON table2.ID = table1.ID
If you get different results, you're aggregating duplicates or eliminating rows from table1.
If you want to avoid this, you'll need to use a subquery.
I can't seem to ever remember this query!
I want to delete all rows in table1 whose ID's are the same as in Table2.
So:
DELETE table1 t1
WHERE t1.ID = t2.ID
I know I can do a WHERE ID IN (SELECT ID FROM table2) but I want to do this query using a JOIN if possible.
DELETE t1
FROM Table1 t1
JOIN Table2 t2 ON t1.ID = t2.ID;
I always use the alias in the delete statement as it prevents the accidental
DELETE Table1
caused when failing to highlight the whole query before running it.
DELETE Table1
FROM Table1
INNER JOIN Table2 ON Table1.ID = Table2.ID
There is no solution in ANSI SQL to use joins in deletes, AFAIK.
DELETE FROM Table1
WHERE Table1.id IN (SELECT Table2.id FROM Table2)
Later edit
Other solution (sometimes performing faster):
DELETE FROM Table1
WHERE EXISTS( SELECT 1 FROM Table2 Where Table1.id = Table2.id)
PostgreSQL implementation would be:
DELETE FROM t1
USING t2
WHERE t1.id = t2.id;
Try this:
DELETE Table1
FROM Table1 t1, Table2 t2
WHERE t1.ID = t2.ID;
or
DELETE Table1
FROM Table1 t1 INNER JOIN Table2 t2 ON t1.ID = t2.ID;
I think that you might get a little more performance if you tried this
DELETE FROM Table1
WHERE EXISTS (
SELECT 1
FROM Table2
WHERE Table1.ID = Table2.ID
)
This will delete all rows in Table1 that match the criteria:
DELETE Table1
FROM Table2
WHERE Table1.JoinColumn = Table2.JoinColumn And Table1.SomeStuff = 'SomeStuff'
Found this link useful
Copied from there
Oftentimes, one wants to delete some records from a table based on criteria in another table. How do you delete from one of those tables without removing the records in both table?
DELETE DeletingFromTable
FROM DeletingFromTable INNER JOIN CriteriaTable
ON DeletingFromTable.field_id = CriteriaTable.id
WHERE CriteriaTable.criteria = "value";
The key is that you specify the name of the table to be deleted from as the SELECT. So, the JOIN and WHERE do the selection and limiting, while the DELETE does the deleting. You're not limited to just one table, though. If you have a many-to-many relationship (for instance, Magazines and Subscribers, joined by a Subscription) and you're removing a Subscriber, you need to remove any potential records from the join model as well.
DELETE subscribers, subscriptions
FROM subscribers INNER JOIN subscriptions
ON subscribers.id = subscriptions.subscriber_id
INNER JOIN magazines
ON subscriptions.magazine_id = magazines.id
WHERE subscribers.name='Wes';
Deleting records with a join could also be done with a LEFT JOIN and a WHERE to see if the joined table was NULL, so that you could remove records in one table that didn't have a match (like in preparation for adding a relationship.) Example post to come.
Since the OP does not ask for a specific DB, better use a standard compliant statement.
Only MERGE is in SQL standard for deleting (or updating) rows while joining something on target table.
merge table1 t1
using (
select t2.ID
from table2 t2
) as d
on t1.ID = d.ID
when matched then delete;
MERGE has a stricter semantic, protecting from some error cases which may go unnoticed with DELETE ... FROM. It enforces 'uniqueness' of match : if many rows in the source (the statement inside using) match the same row in the target, the merge must be canceled and an error must be raised by the SQL engine.
To Delete table records based on another table
Delete From Table1 a,Table2 b where a.id=b.id
Or
DELETE FROM Table1
WHERE Table1.id IN (SELECT Table2.id FROM Table2)
Or
DELETE Table1
FROM Table1 t1 INNER JOIN Table2 t2 ON t1.ID = t2.ID;
I often do things like the following made-up example. (This example is from Informix SE running on Linux.)
The point of of this example is to delete all real estate exemption/abatement transaction records -- because the abatement application has a bug -- based on information in the real_estate table.
In this case last_update != nullmeans the account is not closed, and res_exempt != 'p' means the accounts are not personal property (commercial equipment/furnishings).
delete from trans
where yr = '16'
and tran_date = '01/22/2016'
and acct_type = 'r'
and tran_type = 'a'
and bill_no in
(select acct_no from real_estate where last_update is not null
and res_exempt != 'p');
I like this method, because the filtering criteria -- at least for me -- is easier to read while creating the query, and to understand many months from now when I'm looking at it and wondering what I was thinking.
Referencing MSDN T-SQL DELETE (Example D):
DELETE FROM Table1
FROM Tabel1 t1
INNER JOIN Table2 t2 on t1.ID = t2.ID
This is old I know, but just a pointer to anyone using this ass a reference. I have just tried this and if you are using Oracle, JOIN does not work in DELETE statements.
You get a the following message:
ORA-00933: SQL command not properly ended.
While the OP doesn't want to use an 'in' statement, in reply to Ankur Gupta, this was the easiest way I found to delete the records in one table which didn't exist in another table, in a one to many relationship:
DELETE
FROM Table1 as t1
WHERE ID_Number NOT IN
(SELECT ID_Number FROM Table2 as t2)
Worked like a charm in Access 2016, for me.
delete
table1
from
t2
where
table1.ID=t2.ID
Works on mssql
I am working on an SSIS job that contains a complex query.
It has some thing like :
some sql statements
left outer join
(
select query joining two more tables )
table1
here, i am unable to understand what that table1 mean ? Is it a kind of temporary view
created . This table1 is used in the other parts of query . But, actually the table1 does
exists in the database.
Is it like , the results of the select query in the parenthesis is created as table1
Please clarify me on this..
I am not able to put down my code because of Security Policies
Here is SQL Fiddel example
Below is the sample query
Select Temp1.id,Table1.id Table1_id
from Temp1
left Outer join
(
Select Temp2.id
from Temp2
join Temp3
On Temp2.id = Temp3.id
) Table1
on Temp1.id = Table1.Id
In above example table1 is the Alias for data coming from joinsof two tables (temp2 and temp3)
table1 is an alisas your subquery. It's the name of subquery you can use with columns for example table1.col1
It is an alias for the query in the parenthesis.
If you would remove that you would get an error.
Aliases are also good when you have the same column in more than on joined tables, so you can distinquish them.
For instance if colX is both in Table1 and Table2 you would have a query like:
SELECT T1.colX,T2.colX
FROM Table1 T1
JOIN Table2 T2
ON T1.id = T2.id