So I'm working on editing some SQL code and I've just began learning it. I'm trying to fix an update query so it updates a table's value5 column with a corresponding database value. The value type from the database is a number, which I want to convert to a date and place into my table. The database number is in yyyymmdd format so I've been trying to use datefromparts() which doesn't work. Anyone have any ideas?
UPDATE tbl INNER JOIN dB ON
(dB.value1= tbl.value1 OR
dB.value2 =tbl.value2 ) AND
(LEFT(dB.value3 ,5)=tbl.value3 ) AND
(dB.value4 =tbl.value4 )
SET tbl.value5 = DateFromParts(Left(dB.value5,4),Mid(dB.value5,5,2),Right(dB.value5,2))
WHERE tblInvoice.value5 IS NULL;
The current program uses the code
"SET tbl.value5 = dB.value5"
instead (it runs perfectly fine) and I am having another issue with testing the conversion SQL code (datefromparts()). Because I am converting from numbers to time/date, I have to go into the design view of the target table and change the input data type of the value5 column from numbers to time/date. When I run the query with the conversion SQL code, the query stalls for a bit and no values get updated, leaving me with just a blank value5 column. If I now want to fill in the original number values, I change the SQL code back into its original "SET tbl.value5 = dB.value5", change the input data type from time/date to numbers, and rerun the program. The query stalls and no values are updated, and I am again left with blank columns, even though the same code left me with the corrected update values before the modifications to the SQL and table input Data types. I come from a VBA background and I'm just really confused with how this is working. Any tips would be appreciated, thanks!
Have you tried with substring instead?
SELECT DATEFROMPARTS ( left('20101231',4), substring('20101231',5,2), right('20101231',2) ) AS Result;
MS Access (and MS Jet too) have no DateFromParts function. Using DateSerial instead.
SET tbl.value5 = DateSerial(Left(dB.value5, 4), Mid(dB.value5, 5, 2), Right(dB.value5, 2))
It's not clear if you work with T-SQL or Access SQL. In Access, you can use Format:
SET tbl.value5 = CDate(Format(dB.value5, "####\/##\/##"))
In T-SQL you could use a similar method.
Related
I am using SAS to pull data in a Teradata environment. I am counting the rows in the Teradata table, but want the output to be in a comma format (i.e. 1,000,000). I was able to use the code below to display the value as a comma, but when I try to add the column in SAS, I can't since the output is in a character format. Does anyone have any suggestions on how to format the number value as comma, so that it can be used for calculation purposes in SAS? Thanks.
CAST(Count(*) as (format 'Z,ZZZ,ZZ9')) as char(10)) as rowCount,
Assuming you're using pass through, pull it in as numeric and format it on the SAS side. You've now converted it to character (char10) and SAS doesn't do math on character variables which makes logical sense.
select rowCount format=comma12. from con
(select
count(*) as rowCount ....
)
If you have a select * you can always format it later in a data step or via PROC DATASETS. SAS separates the display and storage layers so the format controls the appearance but the underlying data still remains numeric.
I am trying to use a cell as a parameter in Excel powerquery. The query works without this, but I have to manually input the values, which I need to constantly change them in the query in other to get the results that I want.
Query (Advanced Editor):
let
Criteria01 = Excel.CurrentWorkbook(){[Name="Servers"]}[Content][ServerSearch]{0},
Criteria02 = Excel.CurrentWorkbook(){[Name="Servers"]}[Content][ServerSearch]{1},
Criteria03 = Excel.CurrentWorkbook(){[Name="Servers"]}[Content][ServerSearch]{2},
Source = Sql.Database("SERVERNAMEHERE", "DATABASENAMEHERE", [Query="SELECT DISTINCT [...........] AND (TABLEPREF.COLUMNHERE like '%MANUALVALUE01%' OR#(lf)TABLEPREF.COLUMNHERE like '%MANUALVALUE02%' OR#(lf)TABLEPREF.COLUMNHERE like '%MANUALVALUE03%' OR#(lf)TABLEPREF.COLUMNHERE like Criteria01)#(lf)#(lf)#(lf)order by 1 asc"])
in
Source
"Servers" is the table name and "ServerSearch" is the column header. If I check the step for Criteria01/etc it will show me the correct value of that table that I need to use.
Original query done in Sql-Server. I have no problems when running the query with only LIKE '%MANUALVALUES%' lines.
My main goal is to automatically get N values of "MANUALVALUES" from a table in a sheet, which will be used as an input for comparing WHERE TABLEPREF.COLUMNHERE like '%VALUEHERE%'. I must use this and I can't get the whole table/database because there are way too many results besides the ones that I want.
However for test purposes at this moment, I am trying to use only 1-3 values, the first 3 of this table (Criteria{0}{1}{2} in the query above). However, if I try to do something like TABLEPREF.COLUMNHERE like Criteria01 I get the following error:
DataSource.Error: Microsoft SQL: Invalid column name 'Criteria01'.
Details:
DataSourceKind=SQL
DataSourcePath=dalsql390;itdw
Message=Invalid column name 'Criteria01'.
Number=207
Class=16
So my questions are:
I am getting the table cell value by the right way? Meaning:
Excel.CurrentWorkbook(){[Name="Servers"]}[Content][ServerSearch]{0}.
How do I refer this value in my query? Since the way that I wrote
that query bought me that error.
Also please note that if change TABLEPREF.COLUMNHERE like
Criteria01 to CHG1.CI_Name like "Criteria01" I get the
following error:
Expression.SyntaxError: Token Comma expected.
After fixed 1 and 2, how can I use this dynamically? For
example, instead of getting values of index 1 2 3, what if I want to
use a whole table? I know that using
Excel.CurrentWorkbook(){[Name="Servers"]}[Content] will bring me the whole table of values (1 column, unknown number of rows), but
how do I use this table content 1 by 1 in my query?
That will get the value, but you can't refer to steps inside of text values by putting the step name inside of it.
You have a couple options for doing this dynamically.
Use Value.NativeQuery to create a parameterized query where you can pass in other values as parameters. For example, Value.NativeQuery(Sql.Database("SERVERNAMEHERE", "DATABASENAMEHERE"), "select #a, #b", [a = 1, b = "x"]) will return the table [1, x]. You can put in the step name in the record value to pass that it (e.g. replace "x" with Criteria01).
Add the text values directly in the query field, e.g. [Query = "select " & Criteria01 ";"]. This is highly discouraged since this can lead to SQL injection issues.
For the third question, it depends what you want to do with the list of values. At some point you will likely need List.Accumulate to turn them all into a single text value which can be placed in the query value, and maybe to turn them into a record to place into the parameters value.
I got a view named 'FechasFirmaHorometros' defined as
SELECT IdFormulario,
CONVERT(Date, RValues) AS FechaFirma
FROM dbo.Respuestas
WHERE ( IdPreguntas IN (SELECT IdPregunta
FROM dbo.Preguntas
WHERE
( FormIdentifier = dbo.IdFormularioHorometros() )
AND ( Label = 'SLFYHDLR' )) )
And i have a Function named [RespuestaPreguntaHorometrosFecha] defined as
SELECT Respuestas.RValues
FROM Respuestas
JOIN Preguntas
ON Preguntas.Label = #LabelPregunta
JOIN FechasFirmaHorometros
ON FechasFirmaHorometros.IdFormulario = Respuestas.IdFormulario
WHERE Respuestas.IdPreguntas = Preguntas.IdPregunta
AND YEAR(FechasFirmaHorometros.FechaFirma) = #Anio
AND MONTH(FechasFirmaHorometros.FechaFirma) = #Mes
#LabelPregunta VARCHAR(MAX)
#Anio INT
#Mes INT
I keep getting this message upon hitting the aforementioned function while debugging another stored procedure that uses it
Conversion failed when converting date and/or time from character string.
Yet i can freely do things like
SELECT DAY(FechaFirma) FROM FechasFirmaHorometros
Why is this happening and how can i solve or work around it?
I assume that RValues is a string column of some type, for some reason. You should fix that and store date data using a date data type (obviously in a separate column than this mixed bag).
If you can't fix that, then you can prevent what Damien described above by:
CASE WHEN ISDATE(RValues) = 1 THEN CONVERT(Date, RValues) END AS FechaFirma
(Which will make the "date" NULL if SQL Server can't figure out how to convert it to a date.)
You can't prevent this simply by adding a WHERE clause, because SQL Server will often try to attempt the conversion in the SELECT list before performing the filter (all depends on the plan). You also can't force the order of operations by using a subquery, CTE, join order hints, etc. There is an open Connect item about this issue - they are "aware of it" and "hope to address it in a future version."
Short of a CASE expression, which forces SQL Server to evaluate the ISDATE() result before attempting to convert (as long as no aggregates are present in any of the branches), you could:
dump the filtered results into a #temp table, and then subsequently select from that #temp table, and only apply the convert then.
just return the string, and treat it as a date on the client, and pull YEAR/MONTH etc. parts out of it there
just use string manipulation to pull YEAR = LEFT(col,4) etc.
use TRY_CONVERT() since I just noticed you're on SQL Server 2012:
TRY_CONVERT(DATE, RValues) AS FechaFirma
I am trying to connect a Filemaker DB to Firebird SQL DB in both ways import to FM and export back to Firebird DB.
So far it works using the MBS Plug-in but FM 13 Pro canot handle NULL.
That means that for example Timestamp fields that are empty (NULL) produce a "0" value.
Thats means in Time something like 01.01.1889 00:00:00.
So my idea was to simply ignore fields containing NULL.
But here my poor knowlege stops.
First I thought I can do this with WHERE, but this is ignoring whole records sets:
SELECT * FROM TABLE WHERE FIELD IS NOT NULL
Also I tried to filter it later on like this:
If (IsEmpty (MBS("SQL.GetFieldAsDateTime"; $command; "FIELD") ) = 0 ; MBS("SQL.GetFieldAsDateTime"; $command; "FIELD"))
With no result either.
This is a direct answer to halfbit's suggestion, which is correct but not for this SQL dialect. In a query to provide a replacement value when a field is NULL you need to use COALESCE(x,y). Where if X is null, Y will be used, and if Y is null then the field is NULL. Thats why it is common for me to use it like COALESCE(table.field,'') such that a constant is always outputted if table.field happens to be NULL.
select COALESCE(null,'Hello') as stackoverflow from rdb$database
You can use COALESCE() for more than two arguments, I just used two for conciseness.
I dont know the special SQL dialect, but
SELECT field1, field2, value(field, 0), ...FROM TABLE
should help you:
value gives the first argument, ie, your field if it is NOT NULL or the second argument if it is.
I am looking for a way to take data from one table and manipulate it and bring it to another table using an SQL query.
I have a Column called NumberStuff that has data like this in it:
INC000000315482
I need to cut off the INC portion of the number and convert it into an integer and store it into a Column in another table so that it ends up looking like this:
315482
Any help would be much appreciated!
Another approach is to use the Replace function. Either in TSQL or as a Derived Column Expression in SSIS.
TSQL
SELECT REPLACE(T.MyColumn, 'INC', '') AS ReplacedINC
SSIS
REPLACE([MyColumn], "INC", "")
This removes the character based data. It then becomes an optional exercise in converting to a numeric type before storing it to the target table or letting the implicit conversion happen.
Simplest version of what you need.
select cast(right(column,6) as int) from table
Are you doing this in a SSIS statement, or?...is it always the last 6 or?...
This is a little less dependant on your formatting...removes 0's and can be any length (will trim the first 3 chars and the leading 0's).
select cast(SUBSTRING('INC000000315482',4,LEN('INC000000315482') - 3) as int)