I want to use ##TempTable to get value from oracle db in my sql Server query, but always get error, the error says
##TempTable is Invalid object name '##TempTable '.
here's the code where I use ##TempTable
SET #sQuery = 'SELECT * INTO ##TempTable
FROM OPENQUERY(ITCP,''SELECT * FROM DB.WINFO WHERE SCH_DATE = '''''+
CONVERT(VARCHAR(10),#DDATE,121) +''''''' ) A' EXEC(#sQuery)
I confused, Should I Declare Query to create the ##TempTable like create Table like usual or by that query the temp table should automatically created? because I always getting error
I think the issue is your temp table is being created in one scope, and your dynamic query is being executed in another.
A few things to try:
Create the ##temptable first, then populate it in your dynamic query.
Try prefixing the table name with tempdb.. (so tempdb..##temptable).
Use a persistent table (not a temp table).
Hope this helps.
Related
I have a Table in my Database Which have name of all the Database of my Server
Table Look like
create Table #db_name_list(Did INT IDENTITY(1,1), DNAME NVARCHAR(100))
INSERT INTO #db_name_list
SELECT 'db_One ' UNION ALL
SELECT 'db_Two' UNION ALL
SELECT 'db_Three' UNION ALL
SELECT 'db_four' UNION ALL
SELECT 'db_five'
select * from #db_name_list
I have so many SP in my Database..Which uses multiple table and Join Them..
At Present I am using the SQL code like
Select Column from db_One..Table1
Left outer join db_two..Table2
on ....some Condition ....
REQUIREMENT
But I do not want to HARDCODE the DATABASE Name ..
I want store DataBase name in Variable and use that .
Reason :: I want to restore same Database with Different name and want to Run those SP..At Present we Cant Do ,Because I have used db_One..Table1
or db_two..Table2
I want some thing like ...
/SAMPLE SP/
CREATE PROCEDURE LOAD_DATA
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #dbname nvarchar(500)
set #dbname=( SELECT DNAME FROM #db_name_list WHERE Did=1)
set #dbname2=( SELECT DNAME FROM #db_name_list WHERE Did=2)
PRINT #DBNAME
SELECT * FROM #dbname..table1
/* or */
SELECT * FROM #dbname2.dbo.table1
END
i.e using Variable Instead of Database name ..
But it thow error
"Incorrect syntax near '.'."
P.S This was posted by some else on msdn but the answer there was not clear & I had the same kind of doubt. So please help
You can't use a variable like this in a static sql query. You have to use the variable in dynamic sql instead, in order to build the query you want to execute, like:
DECLARE #sql nvarchar(500) = 'SELECT * FROM ' + #dbname + '.dbo.mytable'
EXEC(#sql);
There seem to be a couple of options for you depending on your circumstances.
1. Simple - Generalise your procedures
Simply take out the database references in your stored procedure, as there is no need to have an explicit reference to the database if it is running against the database it is stored in. Your select queries will look like:
SELECT * from schema.table WHERE x = y
Rather than
SELECT * from database.schema.table WHERE x = y
Then just create the stored procedure in the new database and away you go. Simply connect to the new database and run the SP. This method would also allow you to promote the procedure to being a system stored procedure, which would mean they were automatically available in every database without having to run CREATE beforehand. For more details, see this article.
2. Moderate - Dynamic SQL
Change your stored procedure to take a database name as a parameter, such as this example:
CREATE PROCEDURE example (#DatabaseName VARCHAR(200))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #SQL VARCHAR(MAX) = 'SELECT * FROM ['+#DatabaseName+'].schema.table WHERE x = y'
EXEC (#SQL)
END
It looks like #temptables created using dynamic SQL via the EXECUTE string method have a different scope and can't be referenced by "fixed" SQLs in the same stored procedure.
However, I can reference a temp table created by a dynamic SQL statement in a subsequence dynamic SQL but it seems that a stored procedure does not return a query result to a calling client unless the SQL is fixed.
A simple 2 table scenario:
I have 2 tables. Let's call them Orders and Items. Order has a Primary key of OrderId and Items has a Primary Key of ItemId. Items.OrderId is the foreign key to identify the parent Order. An Order can have 1 to n Items.
I want to be able to provide a very flexible "query builder" type interface to the user to allow the user to select what Items he want to see. The filter criteria can be based on fields from the Items table and/or from the parent Order table. If an Item meets the filter condition including and condition on the parent Order if one exists, the Item should be return in the query as well as the parent Order.
Usually, I suppose, most people would construct a join between the Item table and the parent Order tables. I would like to perform 2 separate queries instead. One to return all of the qualifying Items and the other to return all of the distinct parent Orders. The reason is two fold and you may or may not agree.
The first reason is that I need to query all of the columns in the parent Order table and if I did a single query to join the Orders table to the Items table, I would be repoeating the Order information multiple times. Since there are typically a large number of items per Order, I'd like to avoid this because it would result in much more data being transfered to a fat client. Instead, as mentioned, I would like to return the two tables individually in a dataset and use the two tables within to populate a custom Order and child Items client objects. (I don't know enough about LINQ or Entity Framework yet. I build my objects by hand). The second reason I would like to return two tables instead of one is because I already have another procedure that returns all of the Items for a given OrderId along with the parent Order and I would like to use the same 2-table approach so that I could reuse the client code to populate my custom Order and Client objects from the 2 datatables returned.
What I was hoping to do was this:
Construct a dynamic SQL string on the Client which joins the orders table to the Items table and filters appropriate on each table as specified by the custom filter created on the Winform fat-client app. The SQL build on the client would have looked something like this:
TempSQL = "
INSERT INTO #ItemsToQuery
OrderId, ItemsId
FROM
Orders, Items
WHERE
Orders.OrderID = Items.OrderId AND
/* Some unpredictable Order filters go here */
AND
/* Some unpredictable Items filters go here */
"
Then, I would call a stored procedure,
CREATE PROCEDURE GetItemsAndOrders(#tempSql as text)
Execute (#tempSQL) --to create the #ItemsToQuery table
SELECT * FROM Items WHERE Items.ItemId IN (SELECT ItemId FROM #ItemsToQuery)
SELECT * FROM Orders WHERE Orders.OrderId IN (SELECT DISTINCT OrderId FROM #ItemsToQuery)
The problem with this approach is that #ItemsToQuery table, since it was created by dynamic SQL, is inaccessible from the following 2 static SQLs and if I change the static SQLs to dynamic, no results are passed back to the fat client.
3 around come to mind but I'm look for a better one:
1) The first SQL could be performed by executing the dynamically constructed SQL from the client. The results could then be passed as a table to a modified version of the above stored procedure. I am familiar with passing table data as XML. If I did this, the stored proc could then insert the data into a temporary table using a static SQL that, because it was created by dynamic SQL, could then be queried without issue. (I could also investigate into passing the new Table type param instead of XML.) However, I would like to avoid passing up potentially large lists to a stored procedure.
2) I could perform all the queries from the client.
The first would be something like this:
SELECT Items.* FROM Orders, Items WHERE Order.OrderId = Items.OrderId AND (dynamic filter)
SELECT Orders.* FROM Orders, Items WHERE Order.OrderId = Items.OrderId AND (dynamic filter)
This still provides me with the ability to reuse my client sided object-population code because the Orders and Items continue to be returned in two different tables.
I have a feeling to, that I might have some options using a Table data type within my stored proc, but that is also new to me and I would appreciate a little bit of spoon feeding on that one.
If you even scanned this far in what I wrote, I am surprised, but if so, I woul dappreciate any of your thoughts on how to accomplish this best.
You first need to create your table first then it will be available in the dynamic SQL.
This works:
CREATE TABLE #temp3 (id INT)
EXEC ('insert #temp3 values(1)')
SELECT *
FROM #temp3
This will not work:
EXEC (
'create table #temp2 (id int)
insert #temp2 values(1)'
)
SELECT *
FROM #temp2
In other words:
Create temp table
Execute proc
Select from temp table
Here is complete example:
CREATE PROC prTest2 #var VARCHAR(100)
AS
EXEC (#var)
GO
CREATE TABLE #temp (id INT)
EXEC prTest2 'insert #temp values(1)'
SELECT *
FROM #temp
1st Method - Enclose multiple statements in the same Dynamic SQL Call:
DECLARE #DynamicQuery NVARCHAR(MAX)
SET #DynamicQuery = 'Select * into #temp from (select * from tablename) alias
select * from #temp
drop table #temp'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicQuery
2nd Method - Use Global Temp Table:
(Careful, you need to take extra care of global variable.)
IF OBJECT_ID('tempdb..##temp2') IS NULL
BEGIN
EXEC (
'create table ##temp2 (id int)
insert ##temp2 values(1)'
)
SELECT *
FROM ##temp2
END
Don't forget to delete ##temp2 object manually once your done with it:
IF (OBJECT_ID('tempdb..##temp2') IS NOT NULL)
BEGIN
DROP Table ##temp2
END
Note: Don't use this method 2 if you don't know the full structure on database.
I had the same issue that #Muflix mentioned. When you don't know the columns being returned, or they are being generated dynamically, what I've done is create a global table with a unique id, then delete it when I'm done with it, this looks something like what's shown below:
DECLARE #DynamicSQL NVARCHAR(MAX)
DECLARE #DynamicTable VARCHAR(255) = 'DynamicTempTable_' + CONVERT(VARCHAR(36), NEWID())
DECLARE #DynamicColumns NVARCHAR(MAX)
--Get "#DynamicColumns", example: SET #DynamicColumns = '[Column1], [Column2]'
SET #DynamicSQL = 'SELECT ' + #DynamicColumns + ' INTO [##' + #DynamicTable + ']' +
' FROM [dbo].[TableXYZ]'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicSQL
SET #DynamicSQL = 'IF OBJECT_ID(''tempdb..##' + #DynamicTable + ''' , ''U'') IS NOT NULL ' +
' BEGIN DROP TABLE [##' + #DynamicTable + '] END'
EXEC sp_executesql #DynamicSQL
Certainly not the best solution, but this seems to work for me.
I would strongly suggest you have a read through http://www.sommarskog.se/arrays-in-sql-2005.html
Personally I like the approach of passing a comma delimited text list, then parsing it with text to table function and joining to it. The temp table approach can work if you create it first in the connection. But it feel a bit messier.
Result sets from dynamic SQL are returned to the client. I have done this quite a lot.
You're right about issues with sharing data through temp tables and variables and things like that between the SQL and the dynamic SQL it generates.
I think in trying to get your temp table working, you have probably got some things confused, because you can definitely get data from a SP which executes dynamic SQL:
USE SandBox
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE usp_DynTest(#table_type AS VARCHAR(255))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #sql AS VARCHAR(MAX) = 'SELECT * FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_TYPE = ''' + #table_type + ''''
EXEC (#sql)
END
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'BASE TABLE'
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'VIEW'
GO
DROP PROCEDURE usp_DynTest
GO
Also:
USE SandBox
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE usp_DynTest(#table_type AS VARCHAR(255))
AS
BEGIN
DECLARE #sql AS VARCHAR(MAX) = 'SELECT * INTO #temp FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES WHERE TABLE_TYPE = ''' + #table_type + '''; SELECT * FROM #temp;'
EXEC (#sql)
END
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'BASE TABLE'
GO
EXEC usp_DynTest 'VIEW'
GO
DROP PROCEDURE usp_DynTest
GO
I have the following SQL in SQL Server 2005 but I get an error stating "Invalid column name 'ExpIsLocalTime' (ln 7) when I run it:
IF NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM sys.columns WHERE Name = N'ExpIsLocalTime' AND Object_ID = Object_ID(N'[dbo].[tbl_SessionsAvailable]'))
BEGIN
ALTER TABLE dbo.tbl_SessionsAvailable ADD
ExpIsLocalTime bit NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_tbl_SessionsAvailable_ExpIsLocalTime DEFAULT (0)
UPDATE dbo.tbl_SessionsAvailable
SET ExpIsLocalTime = 1
END
GO
This will be in a script file that may be run more than once so I'm trying to make sure the UPDATE only runs once. Is there something about BEGIN/END that delays the execution of the DDL statement?
Your SQL query to do the UPDATE refers to a column that has not yet been created. At compile time, SQL Server detects that the column does not exist, so it gives you the error "Invalid column name 'ExpIsLocalTime'".
In order to include the UPDATE in this query, you will need to encapsulate it in a dynamic SQL query. In other words, something like this:
IF NOT EXISTS(SELECT * FROM sys.columns WHERE Name = N'ExpIsLocalTime' AND Object_ID = Object_ID(N'[dbo].[tbl_SessionsAvailable]'))
BEGIN
ALTER TABLE dbo.tbl_SessionsAvailable ADD
ExpIsLocalTime bit NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_tbl_SessionsAvailable_ExpIsLocalTime DEFAULT (0)
DECLARE #SQL NVARCHAR(1000)
SELECT #SQL = N'UPDATE dbo.tbl_SessionsAvailable SET ExpIsLocalTime = 1'
EXEC sp_executesql #SQL
END
GO
We have the same issue in our SQL scripts that maintain tables. After a table is created, if we add a column to it later, we have to use dynamic SQL to avoid these compilation errors.
Another possibly simpler solution is using the GO statement after the Alter statement. This would send the DDL to the server. Then run the rest of your SQL. This should work if you are using sqlcmd osql or SSMS.
Compare the following stored procedures:
CREATE PROCEDURE testProc1
AS
SELECT * INTO #temp FROM information_schema.tables
SELECT * FROM #temp
GO
CREATE PROCEDURE testProc2
AS
EXEC('SELECT * INTO #temp FROM information_schema.tables')
SELECT * FROM #temp
GO
Now, if I run testProc1, it works, and #temp seems to only exist for the duration of that call. However, testProc2 doesn't seem to work at all, since I get an Invalid object name '#temp' error message instead.
Why the distinction, and how can I use a temp table to SELECT * INTO if the source table name is a parameter to the stored procedure and can have arbitrary structure?
Note that I'm using Microsoft SQL Server 2005.
From BOL:
Local temporary tables are visible
only in the current session... ...
Temporary tables are automatically
dropped when they go out of scope,
unless explicitly dropped using DROP
TABLE
The distinction between your first and second procedures is that in the first, the table is defined in the same scope that it is selected from; in the second, the EXEC() creates the table in its own scope, so the select fails in this case...
However, note that the following works just fine:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[testProc3]
AS
SELECT * INTO #temp FROM information_schema.tables
EXEC('SELECT * FROM #temp')
GO
And it works because the scope of EXEC is a child of the scope of the stored procedure. When the table is created in the parent scope, it also exists for any of the children.
To give you a good solution, we'd need to know more about the problem that you're trying to solve... but, if you simply need to select from the created table, performing the select in the child scope works just fine:
CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[testProc4]
AS
EXEC('SELECT * INTO #temp FROM information_schema.tables; SELECT * FROM #temp')
GO
You could try using a global temp table (named ##temp not #temp). However be aware that other connections can see this table as well.
Brief history:
I'm writing a stored procedure to support a legacy reporting system (using SQL Server Reporting Services 2000) on a legacy web application.
In keeping with the original implementation style, each report has a dedicated stored procedure in the database that performs all the querying necessary to return a "final" dataset that can be rendered simply by the report server.
Due to the business requirements of this report, the returned dataset has an unknown number of columns (it depends on the user who executes the report, but may have 4-30 columns).
Throughout the stored procedure, I keep a column UserID to track the user's ID to perform additional querying. At the end, however, I do something like this:
UPDATE #result
SET Name = ppl.LastName + ', ' + ppl.FirstName
FROM #result r
LEFT JOIN Users u ON u.id = r.userID
LEFT JOIN People ppl ON ppl.id = u.PersonID
ALTER TABLE #result
DROP COLUMN [UserID]
SELECT * FROM #result r ORDER BY Name
Effectively I set the Name varchar column (that was previously left NULL while I was performing some pivot logic) to the desired name format in plain text.
When finished, I want to drop the UserID column as the report user shouldn't see this.
Finally, the data set returned has one column for the username, and an arbitrary number of INT columns with performance totals. For this reason, I can't simply exclude the UserID column since SQL doesn't support "SELECT * EXCEPT [UserID]" or the like.
With this known (any style pointers are appreciated but not central to this problem), here's the problem:
When I execute this stored procedure, I get an execution error:
Invalid column name 'userID'.
However, if I comment out my DROP COLUMN statement and retain the UserID, the stored procedure performs correctly.
What's going on? It certainly looks like the statements are executing out of order and it's dropping the column before I can use it to set the name strings!
[Edit 1]
I defined UserID previously (the whole stored procedure is about 200 lies of mostly irrelevant logic, so I'll paste snippets:
CREATE TABLE #result ([Name] NVARCHAR(256), [UserID] INT);
Case sensitivity isn't the problem but did point me to the right line - there was one place in which I had userID instead of UserID. Now that I fixed the case, the error message complains about UserID.
My "broken" stored procedure also works properly in SQL Server 2008 - this is either a 2000 bug or I'm severely misunderstanding how SQL Server used to work.
Thanks everyone for chiming in!
For anyone searching this in the future, I've added an extremely crude workaround to be 2000-compatible until we update our production version:
DECLARE #workaroundTableName NVARCHAR(256), #workaroundQuery NVARCHAR(2000)
SET #workaroundQuery = 'SELECT [Name]';
DECLARE cur_workaround CURSOR FOR
SELECT COLUMN_NAME FROM [tempdb].INFORMATION_SCHEMA.Columns WHERE TABLE_NAME LIKE '#result%' AND COLUMN_NAME <> 'UserID'
OPEN cur_workaround;
FETCH NEXT FROM cur_workaround INTO #workaroundTableName
WHILE ##FETCH_STATUS = 0
BEGIN
SET #workaroundQuery = #workaroundQuery + ',[' + #workaroundTableName + ']'
FETCH NEXT FROM cur_workaround INTO #workaroundTableName
END
CLOSE cur_workaround;
DEALLOCATE cur_workaround;
SET #workaroundQuery = #workaroundQuery + ' FROM #result ORDER BY Name ASC'
EXEC(#workaroundQuery);
Thanks everyone!
A much easier solution would be to not drop the column, but don't return it in the final select.
There are all sorts of reasons why you shouldn't be returning select * from your procedure anyway.
EDIT: I see now that you have to do it this way because of an unknown number of columns.
Based on the error message, is the database case sensitive, and so there's a difference between userID and UserID?
This works for me:
CREATE TABLE #temp_t
(
myInt int,
myUser varchar(100)
)
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(1, 'Jon1')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(2, 'Jon2')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(3, 'Jon3')
INSERT INTO #temp_t(myInt, myUser) VALUES(4, 'Jon4')
ALTER TABLE #temp_t
DROP Column myUser
SELECT * FROM #temp_t
DROP TABLE #temp_t
It says invalid column for you. Did you check the spelling and ensure there even exists that column in your temp table.
You might try wrapping everything preceding the DROP COLUMN in a BEGIN...COMMIT transaction.
At compile time, SQL Server is probably expanding the * into the full list of columns. Thus, at run time, SQL Server executes "SELECT UserID, Name, LastName, FirstName, ..." instead of "SELECT *". Dynamically assembling the final SELECT into a string and then EXECing it at the end of the stored procedure may be the way to go.